Is morality objective or subjective?

Should you think about your duty, or about the consequences of your actions? Or should you concentrate on becoming a good person?

Moderators: AMod, iMod

User avatar
Immanuel Can
Posts: 27604
Joined: Wed Sep 25, 2013 4:42 pm

Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Immanuel Can »

Harbal wrote: Mon Oct 23, 2023 9:24 pm
Immanuel Can wrote: Mon Oct 23, 2023 9:07 pm
Harbal wrote: Mon Oct 23, 2023 8:50 pm
Okay, tell us: What is morality, where does it come from and what is it for.
Morality is the rightness and wrongness of things. It comes from God. And it is for human instruction, so that we can understand the nature of God and learn to achieve the sorts of things for which He created us.

But I don't think that's actually all you want to ask about objectivism. It's too simple.
Okay, I'd better think of something to ask you, or I will look rather silly after all the fuss I made. 🙂

Is there any measure of right and wrong other than God's say so? I mean; does morality -right and wrong- conform to any principles, or follow some sort of line of rationality, or is it simply a matter of what God says makes it so?
It depends on the form of objectivism about which one is talking. Kant famously hoped that one might be able to reason one's ways to a universal or "categorical" imperative, but his efforts have generally been seen to fall short in various ways. I think that the truth is that Kant was a bit of a closet teleologist...he thought it was just obvious that human beings have rationality as their ultimate goal or "telos." But he was probably wrong about that.

I surmise you must have something like Kantianism in mind when you ask about "principles" or "rationality" to which we would orient our behaviour...or even that of God.

But I think you're meaning my kind of objectivism, which is grounded in God. And since God is eternal, uncreated and the Creator of all things, and morality is a thing, it would not be possible for an principle to precede God, or to be capable of informing Him of something He "should" do. To suggest that -- assuming God exists, of course, which I'm aware you don't grant -- would mean that God was less than, analytically, what we Theists mean by the term "God."

The word "ought," which is essentially to all ethics and morality, is actually a contraction of two English words: "owe + it." So when we say that so-and-so "ought" to do something, we mean he "owes it" to do it. But to whom can such things be "owed"? Only, ultimately, to God. No human being has the authority or ability to command us to feel we "owe" anything to anybody (which is one of the things that makes subjectivism so powerless, since it can't inform anybody they "owe it" to anybody else to do anything at all.)

But we can "owe it" to God, our Creator and Designer, who alone knows His intention in making us, to fulfill that mission for which we were created, and to act has He has ordained we "ought." Hence, morality gets off the ground only with God.
User avatar
iambiguous
Posts: 11317
Joined: Mon Nov 22, 2010 10:23 pm

Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by iambiguous »

For a thing to be "rational," it has to rationalize with its own basic assumptions. In logic, we say that a conclusion must "follow from the premises." A claim can be untrue, and yet perfectly rational. For example:

All cats are dogs.
This is a siamese cat.
Therefore it is a dog.

That's not an "irrational" statement, but rather one that is wildly "untrue." It's actually 100% perfectly rational, in that the rational connections are precisely connected in the right way: it's just false, though. Premise one is manifestly false, and so is the conclusion.

But in order to detect the truth of a statement, it has to be rational first. If it is not even rational, we can dismiss it.
Or:

All Hamas members are Jews
Ismail Haniyeh is a member of Hamas
Therefore Ismail Haniyeh is a Jew

Let's run that by the Muslims and the Jews over there now and note their own distinction between "irrational" and "untrue". Will they accept it or dismiss it? Or, perhaps, "accept" or "dismiss" it?

Or:

All atheists believe in God
Iambiguous is an atheist
Therefore iambiguous believes in God
That's the case of subjective "morality." It doesn't even arise to meet the very first challenge of being coherent and rational.
Well, I do agree "here and now" that most of the individual subjects here...

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_r ... traditions
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_p ... ideologies

...when challenged, are unable to demonstrate that their own [and only their own] moral assessment is necessarily coherent and rational. But that's the beauty of the human condition for the objectivists. All they need do is to believe that this is true "in their heads" and, as far as they are concerned, that makes it true objectively. Or "objectively". Just ask the folks over in the Holy Land.

Or, here, this example...
God created all things.
Morality is a thing.
This entails that God also created morality.
Which God?

The Christian God exists because it says so in the Christian Bible
The Christian Bible is true because it is the word of the Christian God
Therefore henry quirk will burn in Hell unless he accepts Jesus Christ as his personal savior

You gotta love logic.
User avatar
Immanuel Can
Posts: 27604
Joined: Wed Sep 25, 2013 4:42 pm

Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Immanuel Can »

iambiguous wrote: Mon Oct 23, 2023 9:25 pm
It's certainly reasonable for us to eliminate the inherently irrational. Neither moral nihilism nor moral objectivism is inherently irrational. You may wish to say that you prefer to think neither is true, but it's not inherently obvious that neither can be.
Yes, I may well be missing the point here, but how can moral nihilism not be inherently irrational if Christian morality is...inherently rational? Or is the Christian God Himself not inherently rational?
You need to understand the difference between validity (rationality) and truth. Here's a primer: https://www.differencebetween.com/diffe ... -validity/.

And the problem with objective morality of course is that there are so many folks out there all claiming that their own spiritual or secular agenda is, in fact, the one and the only path to it.
That isn't actually any rational problem at all, as I've often pointed out. The existence of any number of wrong answers does not suggest there's no right answer. It just means there are confused people.

There is an infinite range of wrong opinions about "What is 2 +2?" That infinite range does not imply there is no answer, or that it's not "4". It just means that everybody who says, "5," "21" and "3,000" are all wrong, as is every other of the infinite number of wrong answers.
User avatar
Harbal
Posts: 10729
Joined: Thu Jun 20, 2013 10:03 pm
Location: Yorkshire
Contact:

Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Harbal »

Immanuel Can wrote: Mon Oct 23, 2023 9:41 pm
Harbal wrote: Mon Oct 23, 2023 9:24 pm
Okay, I'd better think of something to ask you, or I will look rather silly after all the fuss I made. 🙂

Is there any measure of right and wrong other than God's say so? I mean; does morality -right and wrong- conform to any principles, or follow some sort of line of rationality, or is it simply a matter of what God says makes it so?
It depends on the form of objectivism about which one is talking. Kant famously hoped that one might be able to reason one's ways to a universal or "categorical" imperative, but his efforts have generally been seen to fall short in various ways. I think that the truth is that Kant was a bit of a closet teleologist...he thought it was just obvious that human beings have rationality as their ultimate goal or "telos." But he was probably wrong about that.

I surmise you must have something like Kantianism in mind when you ask about "principles" or "rationality" to which we would orient our behaviour...or even that of God.
If I have Kantianism in mind, I have no idea how it got there. I have an open mind, actually, and I'm trying not to anticipate what your answer might be.
But I think you're meaning my kind of objectivism, which is grounded in God. And since God is eternal, uncreated and the Creator of all things, and morality is a thing, it would not be possible for an principle to precede God, or to be capable of informing Him of something He "should" do. To suggest that -- assuming God exists, of course, which I'm aware you don't grant -- would mean that God was less than, analytically, what we Theists mean by the term "God."
Logic and rationality are also things that God must have created then, so did he use them to base morality on? What I am getting at is, is there any line of reasoning by which we can work out what is morally good, or are the specifics of morality like the gender of German nouns, where we have to learn each one individually?
The word "ought," which is essentially to all ethics and morality, is actually a contraction of two English words: "owe + it." So when we say that so-and-so "ought" to do something, we mean he "owes it" to do it.
But most people would not know the etymology of "ought", I certainly didn't, so it is hard to see how that is what we mean when we say the word. I always thought it had the same meaning as "should", but then "should" probably doesn't mean exactly what I think it means, but I know what I mean by it.
User avatar
iambiguous
Posts: 11317
Joined: Mon Nov 22, 2010 10:23 pm

Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by iambiguous »

iambiguous wrote: Mon Oct 23, 2023 9:25 pm
It's certainly reasonable for us to eliminate the inherently irrational. Neither moral nihilism nor moral objectivism is inherently irrational. You may wish to say that you prefer to think neither is true, but it's not inherently obvious that neither can be.
Yes, I may well be missing the point here, but how can moral nihilism not be inherently irrational if Christian morality is...inherently rational? Or is the Christian God Himself not inherently rational?
Immanuel Cant wrote: Mon Oct 23, 2023 9:41 pm You need to understand the difference between validity (rationality) and truth. Here's a primer: https://www.differencebetween.com/diffe ... -validity/.
"The key difference between truth and validity is that truth is a property of premises and conclusions whereas validity is a property of arguments."

What does that really have to do with my point? How is moral nihilism either true or false, valid or invalid when juxtaposed to or with the rationality and the validity of insisting that human morality revolves around the Christian God's moral Commandments. How would Jesus Christ Himself make that distinction?

Or, philosophically, is this just one of those god-awful "technical" distinctions that keep logicians and epistemologists up at night?
And the problem with objective morality of course is that there are so many folks out there all claiming that their own spiritual or secular agenda is, in fact, the one and the only path to it.

Immanuel Cant wrote: Mon Oct 23, 2023 9:41 pmThat isn't actually any rational problem at all, as I've often pointed out. The existence of any number of wrong answers does not suggest there's no right answer. It just means there are confused people.
Right, let's run that by these guys and gals...

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_r ... traditions

...and see how many of them insist that your answer is the wrong one. That you are the one confused here.

Of course, how many of them have the equivalent of this...

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=idDoRft ... SjDNeMaRoX

...to fall back on? Right, Mr. Wiggle?
Immanuel Cant wrote: Mon Oct 23, 2023 9:41 pm There is an infinite range of wrong opinions about "What is 2 +2?" That infinite range does not imply there is no answer, or that it's not "4". It just means that everybody who says, "5," "21" and "3,000" are all wrong, as is every other of the infinite number of wrong answers.
Whenever you post things like this -- math is the equivalent of religion? -- I'm back to thinking...

1] you have a "condition" and it's "beyond your control"
2[ IC is a character that you play here. Your arguments are so "canned" you are actually just being ironic...mocking Christians by exposing just how ridiculous their arguments can be
3] we live in a wholly determined universe and neither one of us are able to actually post anything other than what our brains compel us to.

Immanuel Cant wrote: Mon Oct 23, 2023 9:41 pmHowever, moral subjectivism fails even the most basic tests of logic and definition. And we should surely eliminate the irrational before we go on to consider which rational alternative is at least possibly true.

This is true only if and when you are willing to agree with the definition and the meaning of these words as he does.

That's why he almost always keeps these discussions up in the philosophical clouds.

"Ethical subjectivism is the meta-ethical view which claims that: Ethical sentences express propositions. Some such propositions are true. The truth or falsity of such propositions is ineliminably dependent on the attitudes of people. This makes ethical subjectivism a form of cognitivism." wiki

Again, whatever that means given particular sets of circumstances given particular conflicting goods. Circumstances out in particular worlds understood in particular ways. Understood, in my view, from the perspective of dasein derived from the points I raise in the OP here: https://www.ilovephilosophy.com/viewtop ... 1&t=176529

And all I can do in regard to those who reject my own theoretical "world of words" there is to ask them to explain why. Each of us taking our philosophical assessments down out of the philosophical clouds as I did in regard to abortion in the OP here: https://www.ilovephilosophy.com/viewtop ... 1&t=194382
Veritas Aequitas
Posts: 15722
Joined: Wed Jul 11, 2012 4:41 am

Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

FlashDangerpants wrote: Mon Oct 23, 2023 9:57 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Mon Oct 23, 2023 9:02 am Note Simon Blackburn's Challenge to moral subjectivists;
Simon Blackburn derived quasi-realism[2][page needed] from a Humean account of the origin of our moral opinions, adapting Hume's genealogical account in the light of evolutionary game theory. To support his case, Blackburn has issued a challenge, Blackburn's Challenge,[3][page needed] to anyone who can explain how two situations can demand different ethical responses without referring to a difference in the situations themselves.
Because this challenge is effectively unmeetable, Blackburn argues that there must be a realist component in our notions of ethics.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quasi-realism
Can you refute Blackburn's Challenge?
Nobody has an actual problem with this. Try and find somebody who would want to argue that two situations can demand different ethical responses if all relevant factors were the same. They are going to say that the idiom of circumstances that demand things is misleading.
Nobody?
Those who adopt moral relativism will not meet Blackburn's Challenge.
PH and the like are moral relativists who agree that there are moral elements but different people will have different opinions, beliefs, judgement on the same moral element or issues where all external relevant factors are the same.
The difference is due to their internal psychological states, i.e. moral attitude and feelings.

Thus PH and other moral relativists cannot run away from moral realism [to some degrees].

I have raised this;
Moral Relativism Implied Moral Objectivity
viewtopic.php?t=40993
i.e. there are moral invariants within moral variations.

This is along the same line with Blackburn's Challenge.
But Mackie and the error theorists have no issue and don't need that move. Nor does any moral realist. Nor does any fictionalist. Only non-cogs and actual relativists might need to make it. Which is why Blackburn poses the issue, to show that his brand of non-cognitivism is different from others (arguably) in this respect.
It is obvious a moral realist do not need this because he is already a moral realist.

Yes, is by definition an error-theorists or moral nihilist who reject anything to do with morality will not be relevant to Blackburn's Challenge which is related to morality.
A moral nihilist is likely a psychopath who does not understand his own human nature and human nature in general.

Are you a moral nihilist?
I noted you wrote somewhere, you accept there are moral elements except you claim you are not a moral realist.
If that is a case, you cannot escape Blackburn's Challenge and thus it is implicit in whatever your moral claims, you are unconscious and is ignorant you are with moral realism to some degrees.

In this case, you will fall into the quasi-realist category regardless of your denial.
Your demand here is much like what happened when IC got hold of Frege-Geach and went hog wild demanding moral syllogisms of everyone without understanding why they are problematic only for a very select group of enemies that he doesn't have much access to.

If you can trick Willy B into overcomitting to some emotivist stuff he wrote a few months ago, then you can possibly drop that bomb on him. But it misses Pete, it probably misses Sculptor, it gets nowhere near me. And I would expect Iambiggyboy to have a canned response ready for this involving overuse of the German word Dasein.
I have not been following the above, so, no comments.
User avatar
FlashDangerpants
Posts: 8815
Joined: Mon Jan 04, 2016 11:54 pm

Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by FlashDangerpants »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Tue Oct 24, 2023 3:12 am
FlashDangerpants wrote: Mon Oct 23, 2023 9:57 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Mon Oct 23, 2023 9:02 am Note Simon Blackburn's Challenge to moral subjectivists;



Can you refute Blackburn's Challenge?
Nobody has an actual problem with this. Try and find somebody who would want to argue that two situations can demand different ethical responses if all relevant factors were the same. They are going to say that the idiom of circumstances that demand things is misleading.
Nobody?
Those who adopt moral relativism will not meet Blackburn's Challenge.
That's hard to believe. It isn't a challenge for me. All it says is that in our moral language we act and think as if we are using full scale propositions that can be true and false etc. All cognitivists accept that moral language is a full equivalent to any other discourse. That includes for instance Mackie, whose entire Error Theory is predicated on such language being truth-apt.

With that challenge, Blackburn is raising an issue that his quasi-realist non-cognitivism can account for, which other non-cogs such as Ayer cannot. Namely: that we do use our moral language just like any other sort of language with fully loaded meaningful propositions that have the same form as truth-apt statements of fact. I'll leave it to others to work out for themselves whether his approach actually meets that standard, but it is inarguably a sophisticated and important effort.

It's concerning that you don'tunderstand this stuff. You've been claiming technical superiority in the field of ethics over the "gnats" here for much of the last decade, but this is entry level shit you should have known before you started making any such claim.
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Tue Oct 24, 2023 3:12 am PH and the like are moral relativists who agree that there are moral elements but different people will have different opinions, beliefs, judgement on the same moral element or issues where all external relevant factors are the same.
The difference is due to their internal psychological states, i.e. moral attitude and feelings.

Thus PH and other moral relativists cannot run away from moral realism [to some degrees].
This is also concerning. It seems you don't yet understand the differences between non-cognitivism and other antirealist arguments. Again,. you've been at this for many years, you should have mastery of the basics.
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Tue Oct 24, 2023 3:12 am I have raised this;
Moral Relativism Implied Moral Objectivity
viewtopic.php?t=40993
i.e. there are moral invariants within moral variations.

This is along the same line with Blackburn's Challenge.
But Mackie and the error theorists have no issue and don't need that move. Nor does any moral realist. Nor does any fictionalist. Only non-cogs and actual relativists might need to make it. Which is why Blackburn poses the issue, to show that his brand of non-cognitivism is different from others (arguably) in this respect.
It is obvious a moral realist do not need this because he is already a moral realist.
You do understand that Blackburn isn't a realist don't you?
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Tue Oct 24, 2023 3:12 am Yes, is by definition an error-theorists or moral nihilist who reject anything to do with morality will not be relevant to Blackburn's Challenge which is related to morality.
A moral nihilist is likely a psychopath who does not understand his own human nature and human nature in general.

Are you a moral nihilist?
I dread to ask wtf you think error theory actually is? Exaclty how badly educated are you in this field where you claim pre-eminence?


Veritas Aequitas wrote: Tue Oct 24, 2023 3:12 am I noted you wrote somewhere, you accept there are moral elements except you claim you are not a moral realist.
If that is a case, you cannot escape Blackburn's Challenge and thus it is implicit in whatever your moral claims, you are unconscious and is ignorant you are with moral realism to some degrees.
You can't seem to decide what anything means. Further up the page, and here, Pete and I and others "cannot escape" something. In the middle though the challenge doesn't apply to error theorists, yet you seem to think error theory is a branch of ... I don't exactly know what.

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Tue Oct 24, 2023 3:12 am In this case, you will fall into the quasi-realist category regardless of your denial.
I'm not. One day I will tell you what theory I do favour, but right now that's much too complicated for you.

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Tue Oct 24, 2023 3:12 am
Your demand here is much like what happened when IC got hold of Frege-Geach and went hog wild demanding moral syllogisms of everyone without understanding why they are problematic only for a very select group of enemies that he doesn't have much access to.

If you can trick Willy B into overcomitting to some emotivist stuff he wrote a few months ago, then you can possibly drop that bomb on him. But it misses Pete, it probably misses Sculptor, it gets nowhere near me. And I would expect Iambiggyboy to have a canned response ready for this involving overuse of the German word Dasein.
I have not been following the above, so, no comments.
You posted your agreement with IC that PH must be a non-cognitivist. Here's a quote of that to remind you. It is jam-packed with mistakes that indicate you don't understand the basic theories involved in this subject matter. You're welcome.
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sat Jun 24, 2023 9:08 am PH is obviously a non-cognitivist;
  • Non-cognitivism is the meta-ethical view that ethical sentences do not express propositions (i.e., statements) and thus cannot be true or false (they are not truth-apt).
    A noncognitivist denies the cognitivist claim that "moral judgments are capable of being objectively true, because they describe some feature of the world".[1]
    If moral statements cannot be true, and if one cannot know something that is not true, noncognitivism implies that moral knowledge is impossible.
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Non-cognitivism
PH may not agree with 'proposition' [philosophical] but that is not critical in this case because statement of fact is sufficient.

PH has always claims that moral elements are a matter of opinions, beliefs, judgments which are subjective, thus are not truth-apt.

PH also believe in this;
"A noncognitivist denies the cognitivist claim that moral judgments are capable of being objectively true, because they describe some feature of the world"

PH also insists moral elements are a matter of opinions, beliefs, judgments which are subjective, not a matter of fact, thus moral knowledge is impossible.

To the above extent, PH is a non-cognitivist.
Peter Holmes
Posts: 4134
Joined: Tue Jul 18, 2017 3:53 pm

Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

VA has taken to calling me a moral relativist.

But there are different kinds of moral relativism. And the central claim of one kind - descriptive moral relativism - is true: through time and space, people have had and have different moral opinions. Attitudes towards the subjugation of women, slavery, homosexuality and eating animals are obvious examples.

But to reject moral objectivism is not to embrace deontological moral relativism - or moral nihilism - much as VA and IC want that to be the case. To reject the existence of moral facts is to reject them wholesale - not to accept that moral facts are merely a matter of opinion.

I'm not a moral relativist. For example, I think that slavery was, is and will be morally wrong, anywhere. And I think that homosexuality wasn't, isn't and won't ever be morally wrong, anywhere. But that's just the nature of our moral opinions: we tend to apply them universally, because to do otherwise would be morally inconsistent.
User avatar
Immanuel Can
Posts: 27604
Joined: Wed Sep 25, 2013 4:42 pm

Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Immanuel Can »

Harbal wrote: Mon Oct 23, 2023 10:46 pm If I have Kantianism in mind, I have no idea how it got there. I have an open mind, actually, and I'm trying not to anticipate what your answer might be.
Do you mind me asking if you have any formal education in regards to ethical theory? Kantianism is one of the first two or three systems of ethics one is taught in a basic course, so naturally, I assumed you were probably thinking of Kant.
Logic and rationality are also things that God must have created then, so did he use them to base morality on?
Logic and rationality would, of course, not be properties that would precede the existence of things. They are attributes of arguments and reasoning, and so you would naturally need arguing, reasoning creatures before they would be relevant.
What I am getting at is, is there any line of reasoning by which we can work out what is morally good, or are the specifics of morality like the gender of German nouns, where we have to learn each one individually?
That's a good question, actually. But I think the answer isn't simple.

There are certainly moral principles, meaning precepts that apply to more than one situation. Let's take the 10 Commandments, just because they're a set of moral precepts everybody thinks they already know. "You shall not steal," for example, applies to many situations, even without specifying what is being "stolen." However, there are some moral injunctions that do need to be explicitly instructed. It isn't evident, for example, what principle would generate the item in the 10 Commandments that says, "Remember the Sabbath Day..." The reason for that one only appears much later in the Bible, and isn't generated from a more universal principle. So somebody trying to obey it would have to take it as a given, and perhaps only learn afterward why it was given.

So the short answer would be that some ethical situations can be deduced from general principles, and some can only be practiced initially by way of command, and the principle behind them follows after.

But it's certainly not the case that current ethical theory has been able to find any universal, impersonal rule for deducing an ethical decision. So Kant's idea that reason would guarantee us the ability to find the right answer to all moral questions has certainly come up dusty; as has Mill's idea of using the axiom that we should maximize pleasure and minimize pain, or Aristotle's /Aquinas's idea that a "golden mean" principle or a set of "virtues" would unlock the right moral answers. Certainly no moral philosopher of any weight today is thinking that such values as "care" or "feelings" are grounds for moral judgments...
The word "ought," which is essentially to all ethics and morality, is actually a contraction of two English words: "owe + it." So when we say that so-and-so "ought" to do something, we mean he "owes it" to do it.
But most people would not know the etymology of "ought", I certainly didn't, so it is hard to see how that is what we mean when we say the word.
Not so hard. I agree that most people are unaware of that etymology, but knowing it shows where the idea has descended from, and what it might imply, if it implies anything at all anymore. And it clearly does: for you can't say "You ought..." to somebody, and not have them ask you, "Why?" (that is, unless you just mean the "ought" of probability, as in, "It ought to rain tomorrow." That has no tinge of duty in it; but must uses of "ought" do definitely convey to a person that he/she owes some sort of service to somebody else, or some kind of response to a given situation.)

But we can turn the question around on the asker, and as: if "ought" means something different now from "owe-it," what would that thing the word "ought" signals be? If not duty / obligation / necessity / responsibility, then what?
I always thought it had the same meaning as "should", but then "should" probably doesn't mean exactly what I think it means, but I know what I mean by it.
Should is, indeed, a rough synonym. And the common element is that idea it conveys that one has...and here I struggle for a word you wouldn't find troubling...a duty, an obligation, a responsibilty, an indebtedness, a propriety...anyway, something that suggests that the precept in question is not merely up to one's feelings, but that one "ought" to do it, regardless of how one might temporarily feel, and even if it's difficult to do, and even if it requires a loss or sacrifice of some kind.

When we say, for example, "Parents should always love their children," we don't mean to say, "It's likely parents will all love their children." We certainly don't mean, "It will always be what they feel like doing, for parents to love their children": in fact, the injunction rather assumes that will NOT be the case -- that there will be moments when the children will tax the parents' ability to love them, but that the parents have an obligation to overcome their momentary feelings and act in love toward them anyway. What we're really trying to say is, "Parents owe (something, somehow) always to love their children."

But what is that thing that powers the "should," or the "owe" in such a statement? :shock: If it's not the loveableness of the children, nor the probability of it happening, then what is it that makes that statement make sense?

Maybe that makes clear what we mean when we say "ought," or "should." We are definitely trying to point to a duty that overrides feelings or circumstantial advantage, and has nothing to do with mere probabilities.

But what are we calling on, in order to justify such a precept? That's the essential question.
User avatar
Immanuel Can
Posts: 27604
Joined: Wed Sep 25, 2013 4:42 pm

Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Immanuel Can »

Peter Holmes wrote: Tue Oct 24, 2023 9:39 am I think that homosexuality wasn't, isn't and won't ever be morally wrong, anywhere.
Then you are an moral objectivist. You may not know it, but that's exactly what you are. Because "never wrong, anywhere," is pretty much synonymous with "universal" or "objective."

A subjectivist should say, "Homosexuality is right for homosexuals, and wrong for conservatives," because those terms square with their subjectivity.

But as usual, you can probably detect the nonsense in that subjectivist claim...and its' dysfunctionality, as well, because it leaves us entirely without information about the real status of homosexuality.
User avatar
Dontaskme
Posts: 16929
Joined: Sat Mar 12, 2016 2:07 pm
Location: Nowhere

Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Dontaskme »

Immanuel Can wrote: Tue Oct 24, 2023 5:58 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: Tue Oct 24, 2023 9:39 am I think that homosexuality wasn't, isn't and won't ever be morally wrong, anywhere.
Then you are an moral objectivist. You may not know it, but that's exactly what you are. Because "never wrong, anywhere," is pretty much synonymous with "universal" or "objective."

A subjectivist should say, "Homosexuality is right for homosexuals, and wrong for conservatives," because those terms square with their subjectivity.

But as usual, you can probably detect the nonsense in that subjectivist claim...and its' dysfunctionality, as well, because it leaves us entirely without information about the real status of homosexuality.
Homosexuality is a subjective experience. It’s not objectively wrong to experience homosexuality.

Whereas subjectively, the experience of God is not a thing that can be someone’s experience.

People want morality because they want goodness and want fairness and justice and strive for what feels right. And that’s all in the dream, within the sense of separate individual autonomy albeit illusory.

Beyond the illusory nature of the apparent sense of separation, there is no such thing as morality. Morality is just another man made concept within the dream.

Reality is unknown. Any subjective experience is known in the instant of experience, but it is not known how it is known because it’s simply this immediate direct experiencing, one without a second.
User avatar
iambiguous
Posts: 11317
Joined: Mon Nov 22, 2010 10:23 pm

Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by iambiguous »

Peter Holmes wrote: Tue Oct 24, 2023 9:39 am But there are different kinds of moral relativism. And the central claim of one kind - descriptive moral relativism - is true: through time and space, people have had and have different moral opinions. Attitudes towards the subjugation of women, slavery, homosexuality and eating animals are obvious examples.
From my own rooted existentially in dasein frame of mind, one can either encompass the most rational, virtuous and objective moral philosophy in regard to those things or, down through the ages philosophically and around the globe culturally and in terms of our own personal experiences as individual subjects, each of us -- re dasein -- has come to embrace our own subjective political prejudices regarding them.

Though, sure, to the extent someone here can demonstrate to me that doing any of those things is inherently and necessarily immoral, let's explore it.
Peter Holmes wrote: Tue Oct 24, 2023 9:39 am I'm not a moral relativist. For example, I think that slavery was, is and will be morally wrong, anywhere. And I think that homosexuality wasn't, isn't and won't ever be morally wrong, anywhere. But that's just the nature of our moral opinions: we tend to apply them universally, because to do otherwise would be morally inconsistent.
Yes, there's what we think or believe "in our head" Or what we feel or intuit "in our heart". And, for some, that need be as far as it goes to make it true.

But in a No God world or going beyond philosophical arguments or by insisting "I just know" this or that about slavery, how would it actually be demonstrated to be an inherently immoral?

After all, there are those who insist that wage slavery is immoral?

Let's pin that down.
Last edited by iambiguous on Tue Oct 24, 2023 9:52 pm, edited 1 time in total.
User avatar
Dontaskme
Posts: 16929
Joined: Sat Mar 12, 2016 2:07 pm
Location: Nowhere

Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Dontaskme »

Immanuel Can wrote: Tue Oct 24, 2023 5:58 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: Tue Oct 24, 2023 9:39 am I think that homosexuality wasn't, isn't and won't ever be morally wrong, anywhere.
Then you are an moral objectivist. You may not know it, but that's exactly what you are. Because "never wrong, anywhere," is pretty much synonymous with "universal" or "objective."

A subjectivist should say, "Homosexuality is right for homosexuals, and wrong for conservatives," because those terms square with their subjectivity.

But as usual, you can probably detect the nonsense in that subjectivist claim...and its' dysfunctionality, as well, because it leaves us entirely without information about the real status of homosexuality.
The statement made by Peter Holmes doesn’t make him a moral objectivist because he’s only making the statement from the premise of the singular first person pronoun. In other word’s, homosexuality is not wrong for him in his opinion. He’s certainly not saying it’s wrong for conservatives. He has absolutely no knowledge of the subjective experience of what homosexuality means to a conservative, at least not until a conservative has been his subjective experience.
User avatar
iambiguous
Posts: 11317
Joined: Mon Nov 22, 2010 10:23 pm

Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by iambiguous »

Dontaskme wrote: Tue Oct 24, 2023 8:21 pm Homosexuality is a subjective experience. It’s not objectively wrong to experience homosexuality.
Of course, even this gets tricky. After all, there are those who argue that, on the contrary, homosexuality is in fact entirely genetic, biological, inherent.

And while there may not have been an actual "gay gene" discovered [yet]...

There's no one 'gay gene,' but genetics are linked to same-sex behavior, new study says. DNA from hundreds of thousands of people revealed a handful of genetic variants connected with same-sex sexual behavior. NIH

So, it's "sort of" genetic?

And, of course, if there is a Christian God, there is something very, very, very wrong with it.

Note to IC:

Is there a special place in Hell for them?
User avatar
iambiguous
Posts: 11317
Joined: Mon Nov 22, 2010 10:23 pm

Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by iambiguous »

Immanuel Can wrote: Tue Oct 24, 2023 5:58 pm Then you are an moral objectivist.
Actually, in regard to something like the morality of homosexuality, objectivism comes in two flavors:

1] there is the hardcore objectivist [re God or His secular equivalent] who does insist that it is objectively -- universally! -- immoral.

[and with the religious fanatics some insist further that, if you don't repent for being one, you will burn for all of eternity in Hell]

2] there is the "here and now" objectivist who believes that while, "here and now", they do believe it is immoral, they also believe that given news experience or new relationships or new information and knowledge they might be persuaded to change their mind.

So, which one is it?
Post Reply