What could make morality objective?

Should you think about your duty, or about the consequences of your actions? Or should you concentrate on becoming a good person?

Moderators: AMod, iMod

Iwannaplato
Posts: 8534
Joined: Tue Aug 11, 2009 10:55 pm

Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Iwannaplato »

Peter Holmes wrote: Fri May 12, 2023 11:09 am ]That's interesting - but I think the same fallacious conclusion results: esse est percipi - and empiricist skepticism. Point is: 'only the perceived, known and described can be be perceived, known and described - and beyond that is speculation and doubt.' (True and inconsequential.)
Realism is built into language, so if I say 'perception' it seems to mean that one is putting forth a model which includes subject->perception->object (or perhaps with the arrows reversed) or perceiver - perception- perceived. But to some antirealists that model is not the case or may not be the case. Mainly I was trying to separate out perception from description (even that's potentially controversial since there is so much interpretation, gap-filling and guesswork in perception even in realism, but we can set that aside, here). It's not the act of describing 'I see a car' and a car appears. It's that the model objects-out-there-make-sounds-or reflect light and this impinges on our sensory systems giving perceptual experiences to a subject
is in question itself. What we have as separate parts of a process, would be seen by some antirealists as one process without these two counterpoles of subject and object.

So, we can't just demonstrate anti-reailsm is false because perception must include subjects and objects that are separate and the objects are out there. That's realism backing up realism. I assume most savvy antirealists would be aware that our language has a model built into it. They are questioning or disagreeing with that model that, yes, is part of common sense, at least in modern societies in general'.

There are also, within science, antirealism[s] that distinguish between observables and non-observables and consider models and facts about the latter as mere pragmatic placeholders - ideas to help us imagine. There's quite an interesting debate about that issue, with both sides making interesting points, I think.[/quote]Fair enough. But I'd question the use of 'fact' to mean 'placeholder' here. If a model posits an unobservable thing, that's no reason to call the model 'anti-realist'. All the way down, it's mistaking the description for the described. Question: is there any reason to think the described is not real?[/quote]
There are other anti-realism[s], and these tend to be around 'mind-independence' rather than 'description independence'.
Okay, but if there's no mind, then mind-dependence / mind-independence is an incoherent distinction
. Mind is not what we think it is. I can't quickly sum of different antirealist positions on this, but again, in a sense, this comes off as an appeal to common sense built into language. Any anti-realist is going to need to use words that have been used for a long time in realist ways. The could do the German thing and come up with some long compound noun and try to explain that noun (again using language with certain familiar models and tropes in it). But generally they will work with what they have.

But sure what they are calling mind, it seems to me, at least in some antirealisms is not the same as what we refer to as mind. But it would be in some senxe experiencing. What it broken into two things and a process in realism (subject/object & perception) would not be broken up in that way.
And there's no evidence for the existence of mind or the mind as a different, non-physical substance
That's a completely different can of beans. If that's true then you don't have a horse in the race at all. For you reality is neither mind dependent nor mind independent.

. It's a fiction - an invention - like all abstract or non-physical things.
I don't think the term physical has any meaning at all, but I think we've been through that. And since 'physical' is an abstraction itself it would be a fiction. As would 'morality' objective or not, 'objective' 'reality' 'features of reality' and so on. We could pack up philosophy and go grab a beer.

But we could refer to experiencing. Which in terms of parsimony is the most parsimonius of all processes/things since it sure seems to me everything else is derived from experiencing. Even this category physical things (which seems an abstract category to me) every facet of what physical things are is derived from experiencing, whether experiencing is physical or spritual or ideal or mental. Regardless. So, some anti-realists are arguing that there is real thing separate from or existent somehow outside experiencing. IOW there is omnipresent evidence that experiencing happens and everything else posited is dependant on experiencing for it's evidence and even the process of convincing others.

And, yes, experiencing, in common sense language usage implies and experiencer and the experienced, but unless we can use models built into language in appeals to authority, the anti-realist has no easy vocabulary to go to to refer to things that are counterintuitive.
Last edited by Iwannaplato on Fri May 12, 2023 2:55 pm, edited 2 times in total.
Skepdick
Posts: 16022
Joined: Fri Jun 14, 2019 11:16 am

Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Skepdick »

Iwannaplato wrote: Fri May 12, 2023 1:30 pm Realism is built into language,
Not necessarily. It is if you pre-suppose logocentrism.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logocentrism

Which is the default position for most of Western philosophy since forever. It's Platonism in drag with traces of logos/logic-worship appearing even in the Bible if you read John 1:1 in Greek...

Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος
Veritas Aequitas
Posts: 15722
Joined: Wed Jul 11, 2012 4:41 am

Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Peter Holmes wrote: Fri May 12, 2023 7:07 am 'Generally speaking, facts are independent of belief and of knowledge and opinion.'

Yes, let's be rigorous. Notice it's not 'independent [from] an individual's belief, knowledge and opinion'.
You call that rigorous ?? but merely interpreting that one statement literally and grounding on your illusory philosophical realism that [up to the ultimate sense] things exist absolutely independent of the human condition?? That is nonsensical.
There's no qualification or condition. And an opinion or belief held by everyone is still an opinion or belief. Something doesn't become a fact simply because many or all of us think it is.

That's a bandwagon fallacy, and a deeply irrational and unscientific idea. Consensus theories are demonstrably wrong, and sticking in 'intersubjective' makes no difference. (What other kind of consensus is there anyway?)
Strawman again, where did I state,
"Something does become a fact simply because many or all of us think it is."

You are persistently lying and strawmaning my position based on your dogmatism on illusory facts.
And an opinion or belief held by everyone is still an opinion or belief.
This will not make sense if we take a more rigoristic approach.
As I had argued,
all facts, truths and knowledge are conditioned upon its specific human-based FSK.

Theists claim whatever from God are facts, truths and knowledge.
That is almost everyone, i.e. more than 80% of people on Earth are theists.
Yes, non-theists will insist these claims are opinions or beliefs based on faith.
But such non-theistic positions are not effective.

As such, to be effective we have to approach it from a FSK perspective to facilitate a rational and objective comparison.
As such, whatever facts, truths and knowledge as claimed by theists would be conditioned to a theistic-FSK.
But the theistic-FSK is not credible and reliable in comparison to the scientific FSK which is the standard of credibility, reliability and objectivity.

This what I would call rigoristic.
Atla
Posts: 9936
Joined: Fri Dec 15, 2017 8:27 am

Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Atla »

Science has mapped the posited objectively existing reality to a degree that is completely unprecedented in history.

Psychology (especially clinical psychology) and neuroscience have mapped the internal workings, normal variations, abnormal variations, fractures and other injuries etc. of the human mind to a degree that is completely unprecedented in history.

Why is there a 500 page long debate between objective reality denial and human mind denial? Neither of them make any sense?
Peter Holmes
Posts: 4134
Joined: Tue Jul 18, 2017 3:53 pm

Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sat May 13, 2023 4:18 am
Peter Holmes wrote: Fri May 12, 2023 7:07 am 'Generally speaking, facts are independent of belief and of knowledge and opinion.'

Yes, let's be rigorous. Notice it's not 'independent [from] an individual's belief, knowledge and opinion'.
You call that rigorous ?? but merely interpreting that one statement literally and grounding on your illusory philosophical realism that [up to the ultimate sense] things exist absolutely independent of the human condition?? That is nonsensical.
No, what's nonsensical is the idea that facts (features of reality) depend on humans - that, if there were no humans, there would be no facts - no reality at all.

And pay attention. You keep quoting this definition of the word fact, and this definition says that facts are independent of belief and of knowledge and opinion. Then, because this demolishes your silly idea that facts are not so independent, you fraudulently smuggle in 'individual belief', in order to justify the silly idea that objectivity is a matter of intersubjective consensus. Which is false. How you can fool yourself into thinking your argument is intellectually rigorous is beyond me.
There's no qualification or condition. And an opinion or belief held by everyone is still an opinion or belief. Something doesn't become a fact simply because many or all of us think it is.

That's a bandwagon fallacy, and a deeply irrational and unscientific idea. Consensus theories are demonstrably wrong, and sticking in 'intersubjective' makes no difference. (What other kind of consensus is there anyway?)
Strawman again, where did I state,
"Something does become a fact simply because many or all of us think it is."
This is what a consensus theory of truth (true factual assertions) amounts to. If you're embarrassed by this - as you should be, because it's nonsense, - abandon the silly theory.

You are persistently lying and strawmaning my position based on your dogmatism on illusory facts.
And an opinion or belief held by everyone is still an opinion or belief.
This will not make sense if we take a more rigoristic approach.
As I had argued,
all facts, truths and knowledge are conditioned upon its specific human-based FSK.

Theists claim whatever from God are facts, truths and knowledge.
That is almost everyone, i.e. more than 80% of people on Earth are theists.
Yes, non-theists will insist these claims are opinions or beliefs based on faith.
But such non-theistic positions are not effective.

As such, to be effective we have to approach it from a FSK perspective to facilitate a rational and objective comparison.
As such, whatever facts, truths and knowledge as claimed by theists would be conditioned to a theistic-FSK.
But the theistic-FSK is not credible and reliable in comparison to the scientific FSK which is the standard of credibility, reliability and objectivity.

This what I would call rigoristic.
I'm not straw-manning you. I'm explaining why your argument is silly.
Skepdick
Posts: 16022
Joined: Fri Jun 14, 2019 11:16 am

Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Skepdick »

Atla wrote: Sat May 13, 2023 7:38 am Science has mapped the posited objectively existing reality to a degree that is completely unprecedented in history.

Psychology (especially clinical psychology) and neuroscience have mapped the internal workings, normal variations, abnormal variations, fractures and other injuries etc. of the human mind to a degree that is completely unprecedented in history.

Why is there a 500 page long debate between objective reality denial and human mind denial? Neither of them make any sense?
Because the question in the OP is loaded in a way that denies the objectivity of morality.

No amount of evidence or reason can overcome a bad presupposition.
Atla
Posts: 9936
Joined: Fri Dec 15, 2017 8:27 am

Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Atla »

Skepdick wrote: Sat May 13, 2023 7:43 am
Atla wrote: Sat May 13, 2023 7:38 am Science has mapped the posited objectively existing reality to a degree that is completely unprecedented in history.

Psychology (especially clinical psychology) and neuroscience have mapped the internal workings, normal variations, abnormal variations, fractures and other injuries etc. of the human mind to a degree that is completely unprecedented in history.

Why is there a 500 page long debate between objective reality denial and human mind denial? Neither of them make any sense?
Because the question in the OP is loaded in a way that denies the objectivity of morality.

No amount of evidence or reason can overcome a bad presupposition.
Hey best buddy, how are you

Morality is subjective, unless someone can show that reality (the universe) has an inherent, objectively existing morality to it. All such attempts have failed so far.
Skepdick
Posts: 16022
Joined: Fri Jun 14, 2019 11:16 am

Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Skepdick »

Atla wrote: Sat May 13, 2023 7:53 am
Skepdick wrote: Sat May 13, 2023 7:43 am
Atla wrote: Sat May 13, 2023 7:38 am Science has mapped the posited objectively existing reality to a degree that is completely unprecedented in history.

Psychology (especially clinical psychology) and neuroscience have mapped the internal workings, normal variations, abnormal variations, fractures and other injuries etc. of the human mind to a degree that is completely unprecedented in history.

Why is there a 500 page long debate between objective reality denial and human mind denial? Neither of them make any sense?
Because the question in the OP is loaded in a way that denies the objectivity of morality.

No amount of evidence or reason can overcome a bad presupposition.
Hey best buddy, how are you

Morality is subjective, unless someone can show that reality (the universe) has an inherent, objectively existing morality to it. All such attempts have failed so far.
Hey bestie!

Is it objectively or subjectively true that morality is subjective?

It’s impossible to demonstrate things to people who don’t know what evidence would convince them that they are wrong.

Maybe you want to start by explaining what is different between an inherent and a non-inherent morality?

Lastly - is the objective/subjective distinction “inherent” in the universe or is it all nonsense?
Atla
Posts: 9936
Joined: Fri Dec 15, 2017 8:27 am

Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Atla »

Skepdick wrote: Sat May 13, 2023 8:16 am Hey bestie!

Is it objectively or subjectively true that morality is subjective?
Objectively, as far as we can tell
It’s impossible to demonstrate things to people who don’t know what evidence would convince them that they are wrong.
True but not relevant
Maybe you want to start by explaining what is different between an inherent and a non-inherent morality?
Participants in this topic had 5 years to look up the relevant meanings of subjective and objective
Lastly - is the objective/subjective distinction “inherent” in the universe or is it all nonsense?
They are two human concepts that make sense in relation to each other
Veritas Aequitas
Posts: 15722
Joined: Wed Jul 11, 2012 4:41 am

Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Peter Holmes wrote: Sat May 13, 2023 7:41 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sat May 13, 2023 4:18 am
Peter Holmes wrote: Fri May 12, 2023 7:07 am 'Generally speaking, facts are independent of belief and of knowledge and opinion.'

Yes, let's be rigorous. Notice it's not 'independent [from] an individual's belief, knowledge and opinion'.
You call that rigorous ?? but merely interpreting that one statement literally and grounding on your illusory philosophical realism that [up to the ultimate sense] things exist absolutely independent of the human condition?? That is nonsensical.
No, what's nonsensical is the idea that facts (features of reality) depend on humans - that, if there were no humans, there would be no facts - no reality at all.

And pay attention. You keep quoting this definition of the word fact, and this definition says that facts are independent of belief and of knowledge and opinion. Then, because this demolishes your silly idea that facts are not so independent, you fraudulently smuggle in 'individual belief', in order to justify the silly idea that objectivity is a matter of intersubjective consensus. Which is false. How you can fool yourself into thinking your argument is intellectually rigorous is beyond me.
It is very clear from the statement;
'Generally speaking, facts are independent of belief and of knowledge and opinion.'
As such, there is room for 'specifically speaking' which I had explained.

What is nonsensical is the grounding on your illusory philosophical realism that [up to the ultimate sense] facts [things] exist absolutely independent of the human condition.

So far, you have not demonstrated your independent facts which is a feature of reality exist as real; you merely blabber it is just-is, being-so, that is the case, blah, blah...

PH's What is Fact is Illusory
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39577

There are Two Senses of 'What is Fact'
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39587

If it is "the silly idea that objectivity is a matter of intersubjective consensus"
then are you insisting objective scientific facts [based on intersubjective consensus within the scientific FSK] are silly?
Scientific Objectivity
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39286
You are persistently lying and strawmaning my position based on your dogmatism on illusory facts.
And an opinion or belief held by everyone is still an opinion or belief.
This will not make sense if we take a more rigoristic approach.
As I had argued,
all facts, truths and knowledge are conditioned upon its specific human-based FSK.

Theists claim whatever from God are facts, truths and knowledge.
That is almost everyone, i.e. more than 80% of people on Earth are theists.
Yes, non-theists will insist these claims are opinions or beliefs based on faith.
But such non-theistic positions are not effective.

As such, to be effective we have to approach it from a FSK perspective to facilitate a rational and objective comparison.
As such, whatever facts, truths and knowledge as claimed by theists would be conditioned to a theistic-FSK.
But the theistic-FSK is not credible and reliable in comparison to the scientific FSK which is the standard of credibility, reliability and objectivity.

This what I would call rigoristic.
I'm not straw-manning you. I'm explaining why your argument is silly.
Your strawmaning is very obvious when you misrepresent what I had stated.

Where you think my points are silly, is when you are grounding your view of 'what if fact' based on an illusion.

PH's What is Fact is Illusory
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39577
Iwannaplato
Posts: 8534
Joined: Tue Aug 11, 2009 10:55 pm

Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Iwannaplato »

Atla wrote: Sat May 13, 2023 7:38 am Science has mapped the posited objectively existing reality to a degree that is completely unprecedented in history.
and the models shift over time, and in recent history, some of what they are discovering calls into question what that reality is like in ways that call into question the subjective/objective split. Further, there are sound reasons to question what the models they produce actually mean or perhaps better said 'do'.
Psychology (especially clinical psychology) and neuroscience have mapped the internal workings, normal variations, abnormal variations, fractures and other injuries etc. of the human mind to a degree that is completely unprecedented in history.
With similar provisos to the above.
Why is there a 500 page long debate between objective reality denial and human mind denial? Neither of them make any sense?
Actually at root the debate is about whether morals are objective or can be? Which has led to what might be more foundational issues.
Iwannaplato
Posts: 8534
Joined: Tue Aug 11, 2009 10:55 pm

Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Iwannaplato »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sat May 13, 2023 4:18 am Theists claim whatever from God are facts, truths and knowledge.
That is almost everyone, i.e. more than 80% of people on Earth are theists.
Yes, non-theists will insist these claims are opinions or beliefs based on faith.
But such non-theistic positions are not effective.
I hope VA explains this. I think it might be important in understanding the importance of his position to him.
Effective in what way? in convincing theists?
As such, to be effective we have to approach it from a FSK perspective to facilitate a rational and objective comparison.
As such, whatever facts, truths and knowledge as claimed by theists would be conditioned to a theistic-FSK.
But the theistic-FSK is not credible and reliable in comparison to the scientific FSK which is the standard of credibility, reliability and objectivity.
Does he really think use the FSK jargon and model will convince theists? Is this what he means by 'effective' here?
Atla
Posts: 9936
Joined: Fri Dec 15, 2017 8:27 am

Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Atla »

Iwannaplato wrote: Sat May 13, 2023 9:04 am
Atla wrote: Sat May 13, 2023 7:38 am Science has mapped the posited objectively existing reality to a degree that is completely unprecedented in history.
and the models shift over time, and in recent history, some of what they are discovering calls into question what that reality is like in ways that call into question the subjective/objective split. Further, there are sound reasons to question what the models they produce actually mean or perhaps better said 'do'.
Psychology (especially clinical psychology) and neuroscience have mapped the internal workings, normal variations, abnormal variations, fractures and other injuries etc. of the human mind to a degree that is completely unprecedented in history.
With similar provisos to the above.
Why is there a 500 page long debate between objective reality denial and human mind denial? Neither of them make any sense?
Actually at root the debate is about whether morals are objective or can be? Which has led to what might be more foundational issues.
While these provisos are of course correct and VERY important, I disagree that they are relevant enough to the specific issue of subjective/objective morality.
Iwannaplato
Posts: 8534
Joined: Tue Aug 11, 2009 10:55 pm

Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Iwannaplato »

Atla wrote: Sat May 13, 2023 9:15 am While these provisos are of course correct and VERY important, I disagree that they are relevant enough to the specific issue of subjective/objective morality.
Well,
if there is no objectivity, then objective morals are off the table.
if it turns out that what we consider objective in other fields of study (like science, say) lacks qualities that are part of the criticism of objective morals, then those criticisms of the idea of objective morality are undermined.
if it is not easy to separate out mind from matter or 'external reality' then the demand for some kind of mind external independent existence for morals would be weakened (so idealists, some pragmatists, some antirealist could argue).
There are other 'ifs' relevant here.....

Then there is a very specific conundrum given the two main protagonists in this debate VA and PH.

VA is a kind of moral realist and an ontological antirealist (idealist).
PH is a materialist realist who considers 'mind' a term without a reference.

In defense of their positions, they've both headed into epistemology, experience, objectivity vs subjectivity and clashed there.

Think about the complexity of both those positions they have and how they make communication at any given moment in the debate potentially problematic.

Those two positions are compound. (PH might well object: he might say that saying mind and mental phenomena are illusory concepts and this fits with my materialism.) I see them both as compound. Two positions in each position.

Every single word in any argument - and certainly things like 'fact' 'objectivity' 'subjectivity' 'morals' 'mind' 'thought' 'belief' 'knowledge' and so on - can be brought into question and easily be misunderstood (potentially by themselves and certainly by the other)

And everyday language will mean different things to each of them and even worse be misleading about their own positions.

Toss in that by morality VA does not mean a set of rules. I think he's a kind of consequentialist who focuses on virtue ethics. He disagrees with great vehemance, but that could just be that he hates me. It's certainly not an insult to call his position that and I think it actually strengthens his position. But that's a side issue.

Toss in also that VA is not a native English speaker/writer. He can manage at a high level, often, but just imagine all the issues around word use and nuance of meaning given their positions and the differences between their positions and how much time could be spent recovering from a misunderstanding.

Fortunately, I think, it has led to touching on a lot of interesting issues. PH and VA are no closer to agreeing and perhaps not even to understanding each other. It's often important to understand how the other person will view your objections and 'evidence'. What it means to the other.

So, an unasked for suggestion, which you may well already be following, is to just find a way to get something out of the fallout from their debate.

I am sure that VA will introduce more philosophers, research in science and even tack on new positions to either merely criticize PH or to justify his own position. This will lead to little explosions of activity as he then must make this cohere to the ad hoc models he already has. Expect some regular meme chaos.

Toss in Skepdick who will happily back up Lost Cause philosophical orphan positions (often with much more merit, I think, than the two main protagonists notice given Skepdick's temperment and then also it's hard to notice one's own assumptions - and let the philosophical frolicking begin.
Skepdick
Posts: 16022
Joined: Fri Jun 14, 2019 11:16 am

Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Skepdick »

Iwannaplato wrote: Sat May 13, 2023 9:33 am
Atla wrote: Sat May 13, 2023 9:15 am While these provisos are of course correct and VERY important, I disagree that they are relevant enough to the specific issue of subjective/objective morality.
Well,
if there is no objectivity, then objective morals are off the table.
If there is no objectivity then objective truth is off the table also.

But subjective truth is still on the table.

So somebody needs to explain to me what makes objective truth “better” than subjective truth without an objective value system.

Philosophy is for idiots…
Post Reply