Omniscience and omnibenevolence

Is there a God? If so, what is She like?

Moderators: AMod, iMod

User avatar
Astro Cat
Posts: 486
Joined: Thu Jun 23, 2022 11:09 pm

Re: Omniscience and omnibenevolence

Post by Astro Cat »

Immanuel Can wrote: Sat Feb 25, 2023 9:14 pm
Astro Cat wrote: Sat Feb 25, 2023 8:57 pm
Immanuel Can wrote: Sat Feb 25, 2023 3:27 pmBeep boop
Definitely a real quote. Just letting you know I’ll be doing a lot this weekend and will be back early in the week.

Also I wanted to point out real quick that re: how my argument is using benevolence and gratuitousness. Be careful about caring too much about their etymologies, beware the etymological fallacy https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Etymolo ... 20invalid.
Oh, fair enough if there's a hiatus...no hurry. I just had some time this morning, and felt the urge to philosophize.

I know all about etymology and how it works, don't worry. It's something I pay a lot of attention to, but also know where its limitations stand. A word that began one way can become idiomatically transformed into something quite different.

However, that's not the case with "benevolent." It's pretty much held to its original connotation. It implies "goodness." One can debate what kind, but it can't be interpreted as "malevolence" or even neutrality.

As for "gratuitous," it still means, "free." So I think I'm on good ground with both.

But even if they had idiomatically transformed meanings, the problem would remain: one can't get an indictment of a situation without assuming that situation is "bad." So even from a purely logical perspective, the moral is going to come back into necessary play.
Let’s forget the etymology though because the terms were idiosyncratically defined for the argument; I could choose different terms if wanted.

Let’s say I want to make a term for someone that doesn’t want to stab someone else, I’ll call it “nonstabby.” To be nonstabby isn’t necessarily a moral state; maybe a person just has no interest in stabbing in a completely amoral way for instance. They’re just not interested in it any more than I’m interested in eating ketchup.

It can have moral reasons, but the point is it doesn’t have to. Can you see how someone being nonstabby is incongruous with a world in which they stabbed someone without reason (without self defense for instance)? Can you see how that is a logical, not moral, incongruence?

If the words “benevolence” and “gratuitous” bother you and perpetually bring in notions of morality that simply aren’t there in the argument, I can just call them something else. I need a term for “doesn’t want to cause suffering” and a term for “suffering that the sufferer wouldn’t agree benefits them given all the facts.”

Now maybe the being doesn’t want to cause suffering for moral reasons, maybe they don’t want to cause suffering because they’re amorally disinterested in doing it (they find it icky maybe, or boring, or whatever that may lead them to never wanting to cause it). But can you see how “doesn’t want to cause suffering” would be incongruent with the state if “suffering that the sufferer wouldn’t agree benefits them given all the facts” in a logical, not moral way? It CAN be moral, but it doesn’t HAVE to be to work.

Again, I know I’ve said it a few times, it’s like having a word for “doesn’t want red objects to exist in the universe” and noting that’s incongruent with “red objects exist in the universe” (given that the being with the first trait is omnipotent, omniscient, and created the universe).

When I’m back I will just make new terms if the etymology of “benevolent” and “gratuitous” are going to hang things up. I promise you this argument is a logical, not moral, incongruity. Morality is not being snuck in anywhere. This is a communication problem only.

Edit: I can foresee a response that if God is benevolent then it would be for moral reasons, not for amoral reasons. But my point is that an argument could be made that anyone that “doesn’t want to cause suffering” for ANY reason, moral or amoral, is logically incongruent with the existence of suffering: the argument is amoral even if the reasons for being benevolent are moral.

An argument saying it’s incongruent for a nonstabby person to have stabbed someone is a logical, not moral, argument, even if the nonstabby person is nonstabby for moral reasons.
User avatar
Immanuel Can
Posts: 27604
Joined: Wed Sep 25, 2013 4:42 pm

Re: Omniscience and omnibenevolence

Post by Immanuel Can »

Astro Cat wrote: Sat Feb 25, 2023 10:44 pm
Immanuel Can wrote: Sat Feb 25, 2023 9:14 pm
Astro Cat wrote: Sat Feb 25, 2023 8:57 pm

Definitely a real quote. Just letting you know I’ll be doing a lot this weekend and will be back early in the week.

Also I wanted to point out real quick that re: how my argument is using benevolence and gratuitousness. Be careful about caring too much about their etymologies, beware the etymological fallacy https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Etymolo ... 20invalid.
Oh, fair enough if there's a hiatus...no hurry. I just had some time this morning, and felt the urge to philosophize.

I know all about etymology and how it works, don't worry. It's something I pay a lot of attention to, but also know where its limitations stand. A word that began one way can become idiomatically transformed into something quite different.

However, that's not the case with "benevolent." It's pretty much held to its original connotation. It implies "goodness." One can debate what kind, but it can't be interpreted as "malevolence" or even neutrality.

As for "gratuitous," it still means, "free." So I think I'm on good ground with both.

But even if they had idiomatically transformed meanings, the problem would remain: one can't get an indictment of a situation without assuming that situation is "bad." So even from a purely logical perspective, the moral is going to come back into necessary play.
Let’s forget the etymology though because the terms were idiosyncratically defined for the argument; I could choose different terms if wanted.
Maybe. But they'd have to be terms that imply a moral negative.

Consider this. Let's suppose we take three things: something positive (ice cream), something negative (cancer) and something neutral (chalk). Which of the following questions makes sense:

"Why would God allow ice cream?"
"Why would God allow chalk?"
"Why would God allow cancer?"

Of the three, it's pretty clear that only the last makes any sense. And it also requires us to assume that the concept "God" is morally positive, as well. If it's the "god" of the Gnostics, for example, it's evil. If it's the "god" of the Deists, it's indifferent and neutral. So only if the concept "God" is supposed to be morally positive, and the question is about the existence assumed to be morally negative, does the question itself make any sense. And only then can we say the two are "incongruent."

So there's just no avoiding the importation of moral assumptions to the question...if one wants to ask a question that translates into something coherent at all.
I need a term for “doesn’t want to cause suffering” and a term for “suffering that the sufferer wouldn’t agree benefits them given all the facts.”
Something's not adequate there, too.

It asks us to assume that the subject of the first term has no possible sufficient reason to allow suffering, and that the perception and agreement of the "sufferer" is a sufficent basis on which to assess the rightness of the suffering.

All that asks your discussion partner to concede the case before it even begins. Thus, it merely assumes the conclusion it wants, by means of the terms it chooses.
Again, I know I’ve said it a few times, it’s like having a word for “doesn’t want red objects to exist in the universe” and noting that’s incongruent with “red objects exist in the universe” (given that the being with the first trait is omnipotent, omniscient, and created the universe).
Yes, but the analogy is inapt, I'm afraid.

"Why would God allow redness?" is a very strange kind of question, and possibly just irrational. But I don't think a question like, "Why would God allow suffering?" is anywhere near so hard to understand...so long as one is aware of the moral implications of both terms. If one is not, then it's as incomprehensible as "Why would X allow Y?" Nobody's going to know how to answer such a question, if it's framed in such a sterile way. Nobody can even be sure that Y represents any kind of problem worthy of an objection, or that X would ever owe to answer for such a thing.

So again, the moral terms are in there, or the question is dead anyway.
When I’m back I will just make new terms if the etymology of “benevolent” and “gratuitous” are going to hang things up. I promise you this argument is a logical, not moral, incongruity. Morality is not being snuck in anywhere. This is a communication problem only.
No, I get it: I really do understand what you're aiming for. But I also see that you can't really get it by the route you're trying, logically speaking.

Pure logic, even employing a neutral thing like "congruity" won't make sense unless we know that the X owes us, or needs to be, congruent with the Y. And without presuming some moral values attaching to X and Y, we don't have anything like that assurance. We just have neutral placeholders. Are they equivalents? The same thing? Opposites? We don't know.

Maybe X = Y. Maybe XY. Should X = Y? :shock: We have no idea.
User avatar
Astro Cat
Posts: 486
Joined: Thu Jun 23, 2022 11:09 pm

Re: Omniscience and omnibenevolence

Post by Astro Cat »

Immanuel Can wrote: Sat Feb 25, 2023 11:28 pm
Astro Cat wrote: Sat Feb 25, 2023 10:44 pm
Immanuel Can wrote: Sat Feb 25, 2023 9:14 pm
Oh, fair enough if there's a hiatus...no hurry. I just had some time this morning, and felt the urge to philosophize.

I know all about etymology and how it works, don't worry. It's something I pay a lot of attention to, but also know where its limitations stand. A word that began one way can become idiomatically transformed into something quite different.

However, that's not the case with "benevolent." It's pretty much held to its original connotation. It implies "goodness." One can debate what kind, but it can't be interpreted as "malevolence" or even neutrality.

As for "gratuitous," it still means, "free." So I think I'm on good ground with both.

But even if they had idiomatically transformed meanings, the problem would remain: one can't get an indictment of a situation without assuming that situation is "bad." So even from a purely logical perspective, the moral is going to come back into necessary play.
Let’s forget the etymology though because the terms were idiosyncratically defined for the argument; I could choose different terms if wanted.
Maybe. But they'd have to be terms that imply a moral negative.

Consider this. Let's suppose we take three things: something positive (ice cream), something negative (cancer) and something neutral (chalk). Which of the following questions makes sense:

"Why would God allow ice cream?"
"Why would God allow chalk?"
"Why would God allow cancer?"

Of the three, it's pretty clear that only the last makes any sense. And it also requires us to assume that the concept "God" is morally positive, as well. If it's the "god" of the Gnostics, for example, it's evil. If it's the "god" of the Deists, it's indifferent and neutral. So only if the concept "God" is supposed to be morally positive, and the question is about the existence assumed to be morally negative, does the question itself make any sense. And only then can we say the two are "incongruent."

So there's just no avoiding the importation of moral assumptions to the question...if one wants to ask a question that translates into something coherent at all.
I need a term for “doesn’t want to cause suffering” and a term for “suffering that the sufferer wouldn’t agree benefits them given all the facts.”
Something's not adequate there, too.

It asks us to assume that the subject of the first term has no possible sufficient reason to allow suffering, and that the perception and agreement of the "sufferer" is a sufficent basis on which to assess the rightness of the suffering.

All that asks your discussion partner to concede the case before it even begins. Thus, it merely assumes the conclusion it wants, by means of the terms it chooses.
Again, I know I’ve said it a few times, it’s like having a word for “doesn’t want red objects to exist in the universe” and noting that’s incongruent with “red objects exist in the universe” (given that the being with the first trait is omnipotent, omniscient, and created the universe).
Yes, but the analogy is inapt, I'm afraid.

"Why would God allow redness?" is a very strange kind of question, and possibly just irrational. But I don't think a question like, "Why would God allow suffering?" is anywhere near so hard to understand...so long as one is aware of the moral implications of both terms. If one is not, then it's as incomprehensible as "Why would X allow Y?" Nobody's going to know how to answer such a question, if it's framed in such a sterile way. Nobody can even be sure that Y represents any kind of problem worthy of an objection, or that X would ever owe to answer for such a thing.

So again, the moral terms are in there, or the question is dead anyway.
When I’m back I will just make new terms if the etymology of “benevolent” and “gratuitous” are going to hang things up. I promise you this argument is a logical, not moral, incongruity. Morality is not being snuck in anywhere. This is a communication problem only.
No, I get it: I really do understand what you're aiming for. But I also see that you can't really get it by the route you're trying, logically speaking.

Pure logic, even employing a neutral thing like "congruity" won't make sense unless we know that the X owes us, or needs to be, congruent with the Y. And without presuming some moral values attaching to X and Y, we don't have anything like that assurance. We just have neutral placeholders. Are they equivalents? The same thing? Opposites? We don't know.

Maybe X = Y. Maybe XY. Should X = Y? :shock: We have no idea.
I don’t understand why we’re not getting over this hump, I think we’re focused on different things.

You pointed out “why would God allow cancer” is different from “why would God allow milk.” But it doesn’t matter. The incongruity comes from IF God doesn’t allow milk, then we shouldn’t expect to see milk. IF God doesn’t allow cancer, then we shouldn’t expect to see cancer. This is completely logical, not moral. Why God doesn’t allow it doesn’t matter, it can be for moral or amoral reasons and the argument doesn’t care, it’s just pointing out that A can’t be not-A.

The PoE is not pointing at suffering and saying “this is bad, why does God allow this?” The PoE is pointing at suffering and saying “if God has a property that makes God prevent unnecessary suffering then why does suffering look so unnecessary?” (Edit: and yes “unnecessary” can be amorally defined, I am in a hurry, just trust me)

I don’t know how to phrase this, especially tight on time right now (just waiting on partner to shower). But you seem hyperfocused on the PoE as making a moral judgment about what God *ought* to do, and it’s not. It’s never been. It’s about whether what we see in the world contradicts what’s expected from a creator with certain properties. That is not a moral process, and it does not matter if God’s reason for having a property is for a moral reason or not, it only matters that He has the property. The property can be “doesn’t want to slap babies” or “doesn’t want to eat green M&M’s” and it makes zero difference that one has moral implications and the other does not, it is still solely a logical concern then whether God slaps babies or eats green M&M’s, it is not a moral argument in either case, only logical.

I will probably have to think of a way to VERY carefully argue this because we’re just getting stuck here over and over and it’s maybe because I’m not explaining it well but I know I’m not wrong about this being a logical, not moral, incongruence that the argument is concerned with. If I could put 1,000 capitalization marks on anything, it’s that it doesn’t matter whether God doesn’t want to cause suffering for moral reasons or not, it only matters if He has that property or not because if something contradicts that then there is a logical, NOT MORAL, problem :P
Last edited by Astro Cat on Mon Feb 27, 2023 9:25 pm, edited 2 times in total.
promethean75
Posts: 7113
Joined: Sun Nov 04, 2018 10:29 pm

Re: Omniscience and omnibenevolence

Post by promethean75 »

I wuz gonna tell a lame joke but I'm not gonna do it cuz it could be construed as rude. Here's the joke I'm not going to tell:

"i don’t know how to phrase this, especially tight on time right now (just waiting on partner to shower)."

jeez talk about gratuitous suffering. now everybody is picturing AC's girlfriend in the shower. thanks alot, pal.

(benevolent my ass)
User avatar
Immanuel Can
Posts: 27604
Joined: Wed Sep 25, 2013 4:42 pm

Re: Omniscience and omnibenevolence

Post by Immanuel Can »

Astro Cat wrote: Sat Feb 25, 2023 11:43 pm I don’t understand why we’re not getting over this hump, I think we’re focused on different things.

You pointed out “why would God allow cancer” is different from “why would God allow milk.” But it doesn’t matter. The incongruity comes from IF God doesn’t allow milk, then we shouldn’t expect to see milk. IF God doesn’t allow cancer, then we shouldn’t expect to see cancer. This is completely logical, not moral. Why God doesn’t allow it doesn’t matter, it can be for moral or amoral reasons and the argument doesn’t care, it’s just pointing out that A can’t be not-A.
But without moral terms, we haven't got any "incongruity" or any "+A" or " "-A." What we have is "A?" and "A?" Are they "incongruous"? We have no evidence, or even anything from those terms themselves, to suggest they are.

So if God is not, in our allegation, assumed to be morally good, and suffering is not, in our allegation, morally negative or bad, then the terms we're using don't supply any reason for us to allege "incongruity."

So from what "purely logical" standpoint have you arrived at the conclusion that God can only be the sort of Being who will prevent all suffering, and that suffering itself is inevitably a purely negative property? If you don't somehow have those two things given you, then where's the "incongruous" bit? :shock:

Any entity-presumed-neutral, plus any outcome-presumed-neutral are not incompatible in any way. Even a cause-presumed-neutral plus it's effect-presumed-neutral are not at all incommensurable.

So I just can't see how you can suppose you're positing a purely "logical" kind of "incongruity." You simply have to be assuming some sort of value judgments for both God and suffering...or what you claim about the entailed incongruity is not evidently true.

That's where I'm at. Can you help me out?
User avatar
Astro Cat
Posts: 486
Joined: Thu Jun 23, 2022 11:09 pm

Re: Omniscience and omnibenevolence

Post by Astro Cat »

Immanuel Can wrote: Mon Feb 27, 2023 3:15 pm
Astro Cat wrote: Sat Feb 25, 2023 11:43 pm I don’t understand why we’re not getting over this hump, I think we’re focused on different things.

You pointed out “why would God allow cancer” is different from “why would God allow milk.” But it doesn’t matter. The incongruity comes from IF God doesn’t allow milk, then we shouldn’t expect to see milk. IF God doesn’t allow cancer, then we shouldn’t expect to see cancer. This is completely logical, not moral. Why God doesn’t allow it doesn’t matter, it can be for moral or amoral reasons and the argument doesn’t care, it’s just pointing out that A can’t be not-A.
But without moral terms, we haven't got any "incongruity" or any "+A" or " "-A." What we have is "A?" and "A?" Are they "incongruous"? We have no evidence, or even anything from those terms themselves, to suggest they are.

So if God is not, in our allegation, assumed to be morally good, and suffering is not, in our allegation, morally negative or bad, then the terms we're using don't supply any reason for us to allege "incongruity."

So from what "purely logical" standpoint have you arrived at the conclusion that God can only be the sort of Being who will prevent all suffering, and that suffering itself is inevitably a purely negative property? If you don't somehow have those two things given you, then where's the "incongruous" bit? :shock:

Any entity-presumed-neutral, plus any outcome-presumed-neutral are not incompatible in any way. Even a cause-presumed-neutral plus it's effect-presumed-neutral are not at all incommensurable.

So I just can't see how you can suppose you're positing a purely "logical" kind of "incongruity." You simply have to be assuming some sort of value judgments for both God and suffering...or what you claim about the entailed incongruity is not evidently true.

That's where I'm at. Can you help me out?
Yeah, we'll need to finish this part before I go back to the other parts of the post.

Let's start with the classical philosophical concept of having properties. Properties can be about a state of mind. So for instance, say a woman has red hair and wants to pick out a cardigan that complements it. There are a few she thinks work, so let's pick one of them: "E likes navy blue cardigans" is a property of E.

Now, it's also easy to imagine an alternate universe where E likes navy blue cardigans so much that she will choose a navy blue cardigan every time, without exception. That property would look like "E will choose a navy blue cardigan every time without exception." Let's give this property a name for easy reference:

S1: E will choose a navy blue cardigan every time without exception.

So can we imagine a scenario where there's incongruence with S1 and an observation of reality? Pretty easily. Consider the premises forming a Problem of Cardigan (when combined with the following observation):

1) S1 is true
2) E always has a choice to wear a cardigan (there are no situations where she is unable to wear a cardigan at all)
3) E always has a choice in color of cardigan (there are no situations where she is unable to access a navy blue cardigan)

Then let's say someone observes E in a green cardigan, or out and about wearing something other than a cardigan. That observation would be incongruous with the three premises in aggregate. Of course maybe E just chose to wear a jacket instead, but because we have premise (2), we can rule that out. Of course E maybe just had to pick a cardigan available to her and navy blue wasn't available (so she had to go with green), but because of premise (3), we can rule that out. There's an incongruity with a group of premises, not just with a single premise.

Now, moving on, let's notice that S1, as worded, is agnostic about why E will choose a navy blue cardigan. In my initial statement I just said something about how she likes them, and then supposed we could imagine she likes them so much she'll unfailingly choose navy blue. So that's one possible scenario that will lead to S1: because E really likes blue cardigans. I think you and I will both agree that in this case, the reasons for holding S1 are not moral reasons.

But we can give E moral reasons for making S1 obtain. Suppose that E believes (and whether this belief is true or false doesn't matter, just that she believes this and it drives her intentions) that navy blue cardigans are the only cardigans not produced in sweat shops by slave labor. In this case, S1 is true because of a moral belief held by E.

So we have both an example nonmoral and an example moral reason for why E holds the property S1. But this is the point of this whole thing: it actually doesn't matter at all for the "Problem of Cardigan" why E holds property S1, it only matters that she does. I will repeat: the Problem of Cardigan is a problem whether S1 is held for moral reasons or whether it is held for amoral reasons. It does not matter at all whether S1 is held for moral reasons, the Problem is still a logical problem and not a moral one.

This is the same case for the Problem of Evil, or as I usually present it, might as well call it the Problem of Suffering.

The premise you're super interested in whether it's moral or not I'll call S2:

S2: God will choose not to cause or allow gratuitous suffering every time without exception

We get the Problem of Suffering when we combine these premises in aggregate:
1) S2 is true
2) God is omnipotent (and so is able to actualize any logically possible state of affairs)
3) God is omniscient (and so knows all true propositions and doesn't believe any false propositions)
4) God created the world and its inhabitants

Then we observe suffering in the world that appears as though it could be gratuitous: that raises red flags. We can say, "if there is gratuitous suffering in the world, then that would be incongruous with these four premises in aggregate." That's because we can't say God didn't know about it (thanks to premise (3)), we can't say God couldn't have done anything about it (thanks to premise (2)), we can't say that something else was responsible for its creation (thanks to premise (4)), and so on: if there is gratuitous suffering, if there is, then it's incongruous with those four premises.

Now, again, it doesn't matter whether God holds property S2 for moral or amoral reasons. It does not matter. God could hold S2 for moral reasons and the Problem still occurs because there's an incongruity. God could also hold S2 for amoral reasons (maybe God just amorally thinks gratuitous suffering is icky, or God just doesn't like it in the same way Erin doesn't like ketchup) and the Problem still occurs because there's an incongruity. It does not matter, the Problem and incongruity occurs either way because the incongruity is a logical one between the observation and the group of premises.

If you agree that the Problem of Cardigan occurs regardless of whether E holds S1 for moral or amoral reasons (recall she might hold S1 because she mistakenly believes only navy blue cardigans are not produced in sweat shops, or she might hold S1 simply because she likes navy blue cardigans that much), then you must agree with the proposition, "for the Problem of Cardigans, it doesn't matter whether S1 is held for moral or amoral reasons."

The Problem of Suffering is exactly the same way: it does not matter whether God holds S2 for moral or amoral reasons, the Problem still occurs either way and is still a logical incongruity (not a moral one) either way.

I guess I need to make that point explicitly too: even in the scenario where E holds S1 for moral reasons (she gets navy blue cardigans so as not to support sweat shops), the actual Problem of Cardigan as described doesn't care about her reasons for S1 (it just cares that S1 is a property she has): so even if she holds S1 for moral reasons, the Problem of Cardigan is not a moral problem, but still solely a logical problem. Even if she holds S1 for moral reasons. The Problem doesn't care.

And likewise, even if God holds S2 for moral reasons, the Problem of Suffering doesn't care. It is still a logical, not moral, incongruity.

I hope that finally puts an end to that if the analogy helps.

Edit:

I'm just going to add a super simple analogy too that maybe has a single premise.

Say that P has a property S3:

S3: P will never punch anyone in the face with his fists.

That would be incongruous with an observation of P hitting someone in the face with his fist.

Does it matter why P has S3? Absolutely not, not at all. P could have S3 because P has a moral feeling about punching people in the face. P could also have an amoral reason for S3, such as having weak hands and not wanting to break them, or a simple amoral dislike of "getting his hands dirty" so to speak.

It does not matter at all why P holds S3, it only matters that he has S3. The incongruity either way (even in the case where P has S3 for moral reasons) is an amoral, strictly logical incongruity. We shouldn't expect to see P punch anyone in the face if P has S3, and it doesn't matter why P has S3 to arrive to that conclusion.

Edit 2:

I also feel like I should point this out. We can still get incongruities for things that we personally disagree with.

Say that P holds S3 because he believes fairies will zap him to a torture dimension if he punches someone in the face.

Well, once again, the incongruity with the observation of P punching someone in the face and P holding S3 is still logically incongruous. Even if we, the observer, really doubt that P's reasoning for S3 is true. It doesn't matter. It only matters that P has S3, not why. So, for instance, a moral skeptic could still note such logical incongruities with people and beings doing things for supposedly morally realist reasons. That is because the incongruence is logical, not moral.

Edit 3 (just because I really want to be past this):

If you're having trouble believing me that it doesn't matter why someone holds a premise like S1, S2, or S3 in terms of how these Problems are set up, then put yourself in a reason-agnostic position.

I tell you only that "P will never punch someone in the face."

You visually observe P punching someone in the face yourself. Does your "something is wrong here" sense tingle -- isn't what I just told you about P not possibly true, since you just saw something incongruous with it?

Then remember: I never told you that P wouldn't punch someone in the face for moral reasons or not. Because it never mattered. It could be that P won't punch someone in the face for moral reasons. But it could also be that P would never punch someone in the face because P doesn't like getting his hands dirty. You didn't know that during your observation, and it still registered to you that the observation was incongruous with the premise that P will "never" punch someone.

See? The incongruity is logical, not moral!
User avatar
Immanuel Can
Posts: 27604
Joined: Wed Sep 25, 2013 4:42 pm

Re: Omniscience and omnibenevolence

Post by Immanuel Can »

Astro Cat wrote: Mon Feb 27, 2023 9:16 pm I will repeat: the Problem of Cardigan is a problem whether S1 is held for moral reasons or whether it is held for amoral reasons. It does not matter at all whether S1 is held for moral reasons, the Problem is still a logical problem and not a moral one.
:D I'm sorry...but it's the same mistake.

"Problem" is a word that assumes the kind of "incongruity" you're trying to demonstrate by the argument. It assumes something's "wrong" or "unsuitable," or "incommensurable," (you can choose the word). Otherwise, it's not a "problem." It's merely a "state of affairs," the rightness or wrongness of which cannot be contested, because we've eschewed moral terms.

As a merely "logical" situation, it's not a "problem" to anybody. It's just a "state of affairs."

But let's look at your syllogism.
S2: God will choose not to cause or allow gratuitous suffering every time without exception

We get the Problem of Suffering when we combine these premises in aggregate:
1) S2 is true
2) God is omnipotent (and so is able to actualize any logically possible state of affairs)
3) God is omniscient (and so knows all true propositions and doesn't believe any false propositions)
4) God created the world and its inhabitants
Ugh. Well...I don't want to be difficult, and I sure don't aim to be pedantic here...but a logician will immediately detect that this has both suppostional problems, and also formal errors in the manner of its construction, rendering it what logicians call "invalid," which means it cannot incline us to a logical conclusion.

In S2, we' ve put in, but not justified, the word "gratuitous" again. :shock: We've also had to make the assumption that God is the sort of Person who would not do such a thing, which a reader would have to understand to be a "good" state of affairs, not a bad or neutral one.

But premise 2 is simply incorrect. Omnipotence means that, as I think I said already, uniquely in the universe, God is the one Being who is able always to actualize states of affairs consonant with His own nature. Human beings do things like lie, because they cannot always bring about the outcomes they want, sin, because they are attracted to evil, and dishonour their own natures in various ways. However, the Bible claims "it is impossible" for God to lie (Heb. 6:18), sin (James 1:13), deny Himself (2 Tim. 2:13), or do a variety of other negative things that human beings do, because these are contradictions of His nature. He's not evil.

Premises 3 and 4 are true enough; but unfortunately, they have no connector (logically speaking, or what logicians call "a middle term") linking them to the previous or ensuing premises.

And then there's no conclusion drawn. So the result is not "logic" (to use the word very precisely, in its philosophical-logical sense, not merely informally) but rather a set of disconnected premises, some of which are known to be false.
If you agree that the Problem of Cardigan occurs...
Let's say, "A cardigan situation" occurs". We don't know it's a "problem" because we're refusing to include moral terms.

But without a certainty of a problem, we haven't got anything left.
I hope that finally puts an end to that if the analogy helps.
Sadly, I have to say it doesn't.

Moral terms and implications keep creeping back into the allegation. And it's probably a salutary thing for your desired argument that they do, because otherwise, there'd be no theodicy problem possible at all.

If we take God to be morally netural, and any given outcome of God's activity to be morally neutral, then there's no "problem." And there's no "incongruity." There'd be an "is" statement, with no "oughtness" derivable from it.
User avatar
iambiguous
Posts: 11317
Joined: Mon Nov 22, 2010 10:23 pm

Re: Omniscience and omnibenevolence

Post by iambiguous »

S2: God will choose not to cause or allow gratuitous suffering every time without exception

We get the Problem of Suffering when we combine these premises in aggregate:
1) S2 is true
2) God is omnipotent (and so is able to actualize any logically possible state of affairs)
3) God is omniscient (and so knows all true propositions and doesn't believe any false propositions)
4) God created the world and its inhabitants
Ugh. Well...I don't want to be difficult, and I sure don't aim to be pedantic here...but a logician will immediately detect that this has both suppostional problems, and also formal errors in the manner of its construction, rendering it what logicians call "invalid," which means it cannot incline us to a logical conclusion.
God, human suffering and...philosophy?!!

Me, I prefer to focus more on the part where an omniscient and omnipotent God is confronted with this...

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lists_of_earthquakes
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_l ... _eruptions
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_t ... l_cyclones
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_tsunamis
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_landslides
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_epidemics
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_deadliest_floods
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_t ... ore_deaths
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lists_of_diseases
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_extinction_events

Try to even imagine the immensity of all the human suffering here. All because God [if He does exist] created Earth and viruses and bacteria and human biology and the Heavens the way He did.

Now, sure, I understand why so many will fall back on a God's, the God's, my God's mysterious ways to explain all of this. After all, no God and all of this ghastly human pain and suffering becomes essentially meaningless and purposeless. Shit happens. Sometimes to you, sometimes to others.

But to grapple with all of this in premises and syllogisms and logic?

Nope, that part has just never really interested me all that much.
promethean75
Posts: 7113
Joined: Sun Nov 04, 2018 10:29 pm

Re: Omniscience and omnibenevolence

Post by promethean75 »

"S2: God will choose not to cause or allow gratuitous suffering every time without exception

We get the Problem of Suffering when we combine these premises in aggregate:
1) S2 is true
2) God is omnipotent (and so is able to actualize any logically possible state of affairs)
3) God is omniscient (and so knows all true propositions and doesn't believe any false propositions)
4) God created the world and its inhabitants"

excuse me let an amateur handle this. IC bro all this is is a display of logical circumstances given a set of premises. Now listen I haven't read all ya'lls walls of text but I got idea what's going on here maybe.

if all the suffering that exists is not gratuitous, none of this would be a problem and there would be no S2. but we've... well, you've... established already that some kinds of suffering has to be gratuitous if some of it isn't logically or physically necessary in the universe for God to accomplish his ends. we can imagine a working world in which there wuz no cancer  and people still got to be tested and tried and all that good stuff, to get to heaven, etc. so, cancer wouldn't be a necessary feature of the universe. but in that case, god either isn't in total control of what exists and let gratuitous suffering created by something else (a devil, a sophia, a demiurge etc.) happen for the hell of it... or... he is in total control but happen to fuck up somehow.

the only other option is that every single instance of suffering is necessary and not gratuitous... but that just doesn't sound right becuz there are countless instances of suffering that we know if had not happened, nothing substantial about the world would be different as a result. contingent suffering for no discernable reason.

so to say no suffering is gratuitous is to say god is utterly, utterly mysterious. squaring an all powerful designer of worlds who has good intentions with a world like this one is something of a trick.

If you want to avoid the problem of evil, u gotta argue that S2 is not true, and u wouldn't dare do that.
Last edited by promethean75 on Mon Feb 27, 2023 11:22 pm, edited 1 time in total.
User avatar
Astro Cat
Posts: 486
Joined: Thu Jun 23, 2022 11:09 pm

Re: Omniscience and omnibenevolence

Post by Astro Cat »

Immanuel Can wrote: Mon Feb 27, 2023 9:49 pm
Astro Cat wrote: Mon Feb 27, 2023 9:16 pm I will repeat: the Problem of Cardigan is a problem whether S1 is held for moral reasons or whether it is held for amoral reasons. It does not matter at all whether S1 is held for moral reasons, the Problem is still a logical problem and not a moral one.
:D I'm sorry...but it's the same mistake.

"Problem" is a word that assumes the kind of "incongruity" you're trying to demonstrate by the argument. It assumes something's "wrong" or "unsuitable," or "incommensurable," (you can choose the word). Otherwise, it's not a "problem." It's merely a "state of affairs," the rightness or wrongness of which cannot be contested, because we've eschewed moral terms.

As a merely "logical" situation, it's not a "problem" to anybody. It's just a "state of affairs."

But let's look at your syllogism.
I'ma pull all my hair out IC, lmao. We can't do anything else until we resolve this so I think this is going to become the entirety of the discussion until it gets hammered out, and it has to, because there is some sort of communication thing going on. You keep taking away completely different things than I'm putting out there, and I'm not blaming anybody, but we might have to pull way back to very basic beginnings or something to get this worked out.

For one thing, I didn't present a formal syllogism; I just gave a list of colloquial premises and an observation. It doesn't need to be formalized because it's easy to digest.

I don't need to make a formal syllogism to get a point across such as this: suppose I tell you "Erin never eats cheese." You then observe Erin eating cheese later. You have reason to think that the premise you were initially going with is wrong now. That's what's being called a "problem," that's what "incongruity" means in this sense.

You keep saying "it assumes something's 'wrong' or 'unsuitable,' and I think you're thinking 'wrong' in a moral sense, and I don't know how to get you out of this mode. If a premise is "Erin never eats cheese" and we observe Erin eating cheese, we can obviously conclude that the premise is incorrect (I'm AVOIDING using "wrong" even though "wrong" would be perfectly fine). That's what's meant by problem. That's what's meant by the observation being incongruous with the premise.

NOW.

Let me tell you this premise.

"Erin never writes long-winded posts on philosophy forums."

Do you have reason to suspect that this premise is incorrect?

Then:

Would it matter for your reasons for suspecting that premise is incorrect if it's claimed Erin's reasons for not posting long-winded posts on philosophy forums is a moral reason or not? Would that matter for whether you can think the premise is incorrect based on the evidence? Or would you be able to use the evidence of observation to conclude that the premise is incorrect regardless of what Erin's reasons for not posting long-winded posts supposedly are?

Edit: “problem,” “incongruity,” none of these words are moral words and I don’t know where you get the notion they are.

If we have a premise that a room is full of bachelors and we observe that they’re all married, then we know that we have a problem with our premise, that our observation is incongruous with our premise, that our premise is wrong (in the sense of being incorrect).
User avatar
Astro Cat
Posts: 486
Joined: Thu Jun 23, 2022 11:09 pm

Re: Omniscience and omnibenevolence

Post by Astro Cat »

Maybe I just need to use different terms.

We postulate that God never wants to cause gratuitous suffering. We can then say that if we observe gratuitous suffering, then our postulate is incorrect.

That is the exact same thing as saying we have a “problem” with our “premises” and that our observation is “incongruous” with them.

That is all that I’m ever talking about when I say “Problem of Evil.” It’s just that language needs to be more precise. All I’m saying is that there are these common thoughts or postulates about what properties God has. The world contains things that appear not to be in line with those postulates in a logical sense (the postulate and the observation, if interpreted correctly, can’t both be true). This isn’t a moral argument.

Simplified, “God does not want gratuitous suffering to exist” is seemingly contradicted by the observation that gratuitous suffering exists. This isn’t phrased as carefully as it could be, but it is not a moral argument in disguise.

Just like it doesn’t matter what P’s reasons are for having the property “doesn’t punch people in the face” to contradict with the observation of P punching people in the face, it doesn’t matter what God’s reasons are for “not wanting to cause or allow gratuitous suffering” if God is observed causing or allowing gratuitous suffering. It’s not a moral objection, because it works in a “reason-agnostic” way (the argument doesn’t care if God’s reasons are moral or not, there is a contradiction with God’s not wanting to cause suffering and the observation of God causing or allowing suffering).

Now I know that we haven’t established there is gratuitous suffering. I’m just driving home that if God has a property like “never causes or allows gratuitous suffering,” then if there is gratuitous suffering, there is reason to think the postulate that God never causes or allows it is factually incorrect. That’s it. That’s what the Problem of Evil is, it’s not a condemnation of suffering, it is noticing that given a set of common postulates, observations of the world don’t bear those postulates out as being true. None of that is a moral process or moral thinking, it is sheerly using reason.

Now keep in mind it’s more complex because the observation only contradicts a group of postulates: if God is not omniscient, for instance, then there’s no contradiction with observing gratuitous suffering because maybe God didn’t know how to prevent it, etc.

So:

1) The “Problem” is not a moral argument, it is a reasoned argument
2) The “Problem” arises given a certain set of properties God is alleged to have and then observing a contradiction with that set of properties

That’s it. Nowhere does a moral judgment sneak into any of that.

Yet another edit: put it this way, the PoE isn’t about what God “ought” to do. It is about whether a group of postulates God supposedly has is borne out by the evidence of observation. You have to let go of the idea that I’m arguing what God “ought” to do in a moral sense. I’m arguing “if God has this property, then this is what we expect to see, but we see the opposite.” That’s not a moral judgment. It’s like saying “if Tom is a bachelor, then I don’t expect to see that Tom is married. I see that Tom is married, then the postulate must be wrong.” It doesn’t say what Tom ought to do.

This is why the PoE is only aimed at people that agree with its postulates. If a person doesn’t believe any one or more of the postulates, the PoE simply doesn’t apply. If a person doesn’t believe Tom is a bachelor, then the observation of Tom being married isn’t a problem. If a person doesn’t believe God is omniscient, then an observation of gratuitous suffering wouldn’t be a problem (maybe God didn’t know how to prevent it). If God isn’t postulated to be omnipotent (and yes, God can be omnipotent while never acting against His nature), then there isn’t a problem with observing gratuitous suffering since maybe God didn’t have the power to stop it (or it went against His nature to stop it).

Now I’m typing on a phone here but we can start from square one again, which I almost think we should, where I sit and think and very meticulously give the Problem I want to offer line by line. I will tell you that it isn’t conducive to a classic “two premises then a conclusion” sort of syllogism so I won’t be doing that, but I hope we can work out the premises (or postulates, whatever you want me to call them) one by one anyway. I will probably do that tomorrow.
User avatar
Astro Cat
Posts: 486
Joined: Thu Jun 23, 2022 11:09 pm

Re: Omniscience and omnibenevolence

Post by Astro Cat »

Don’t feel the need to respond to everything I’ve typed lol. I have a lot of energy right now so I’m giving the Problem from the beginning.

This argument is for anyone that believes:

P1) God created the world, its inhabitants, and its physics
P2) God is omnipotent: He has the power to actualize any logically possible state of affairs according to His nature
P3) God is omniscient: He knows all possible true propositions and never believes any false propositions
P4) God’s nature is such that He would never cause or allow gratuitous suffering

Now, in aggregate, these postulates would be contradicted on the observation of gratuitous suffering in the world (we aren’t to establishing there is gratuitous suffering yet, just hopefully agreeing that if there is, then one or more of the postulates has to be incorrect).

Can you agree that this isn’t about what God “ought” to do? It’s about what might contradict these premises if observed. None of this is making a moral judgment about whether suffering is bad: it’s just that given these postulates, it would be surprising to see gratuitous suffering, it would demand an explanation (not a moral reason, an explanation). That is what theodicy does: it tries to give an explanation for how the existence of suffering wouldn’t contradict the postulates.

We actually skipped a step by defining “gratuitous” suffering: doing so just pre-empts one possible theodicy. If P4 just said “God’s nature is such that He would never cause or allow any kind of suffering,” that would be very easy to defeat because most theists would just disagree with the postulate and point out (like we have) that maybe God allows unrequited love because it’s necessary to have freely given love, so the Problem wouldn’t have an audience.

But I think many theists intuitively believe P4 as presented, so the Problem has teeth. That is why there are so many theodicies about whether any suffering is gratuitous.

But we will get there in time. Right now I am just asking if you agree this isn’t a moral but a rational problem (it’s concerned with whether there is an apparent contradiction, not on what God “ought” to do).
User avatar
Immanuel Can
Posts: 27604
Joined: Wed Sep 25, 2013 4:42 pm

Re: Omniscience and omnibenevolence

Post by Immanuel Can »

Astro Cat wrote: Mon Feb 27, 2023 11:22 pm I'ma pull all my hair out IC, lmao.
Ima no try frustrate you. :?
Let me tell you this premise.

"Erin never writes long-winded posts on philosophy forums."

Do you have reason to suspect that this premise is incorrect?
If "Erin" isn't anybody I know, then I have no information either way, of course.
Then:

Would it matter for your reasons for suspecting that premise is incorrect if it's claimed Erin's reasons for not posting long-winded posts on philosophy forums is a moral reason or not?

No. But it's not "problematic" either.

If there's nothing wrong with her posting long-windedly, then neither do I have anything to say about that.

If Erin is doing nothing wrong, then Erin can post short or long. What is it to me?

Likewise, if God is morally neutral, and so is suffering, then I can have no value judgment to place upon the intersection of those things. And they're also congruous, because both are matters of indifference.
“problem,” “incongruity,” none of these words are moral words and I don’t know where you get the notion they are.
Maybe I can try to illuminate that.

"Problem" means, "something's wrong." That's a moral assessment. That's not hard to see.

But what I note about "incongruity" is that it depends on me knowing what is "congruous," and it also depends on me thinking that "incongruity" is not okay. So "God allows suffering" is not incongruous if we view both as neutral. Only if God is supposed to be good, and suffering is taken for granted to be bad do we have anything we can ask about the situation. Only then would they be "incongruous." And then, of course, we'd have to know that incongruity, in this case, was bad or "problematic."
User avatar
Astro Cat
Posts: 486
Joined: Thu Jun 23, 2022 11:09 pm

Re: Omniscience and omnibenevolence

Post by Astro Cat »

Immanuel Can wrote: Tue Feb 28, 2023 2:24 am
Astro Cat wrote: Mon Feb 27, 2023 11:22 pm I'ma pull all my hair out IC, lmao.
Ima no try frustrate you. :?
Let me tell you this premise.

"Erin never writes long-winded posts on philosophy forums."

Do you have reason to suspect that this premise is incorrect?
If "Erin" isn't anybody I know, then I have no information either way, of course.
Then:

Would it matter for your reasons for suspecting that premise is incorrect if it's claimed Erin's reasons for not posting long-winded posts on philosophy forums is a moral reason or not?

No. But it's not "problematic" either.

If there's nothing wrong with her posting long-windedly, then neither do I have anything to say about that.

If Erin is doing nothing wrong, then Erin can post short or long. What is it to me?

Likewise, if God is morally neutral, and so is suffering, then I can have no value judgment to place upon the intersection of those things. And they're also congruous, because both are matters of indifference.
“problem,” “incongruity,” none of these words are moral words and I don’t know where you get the notion they are.
Maybe I can try to illuminate that.

"Problem" means, "something's wrong." That's a moral assessment. That's not hard to see.

But what I note about "incongruity" is that it depends on me knowing what is "congruous," and it also depends on me thinking that "incongruity" is not okay. So "God allows suffering" is not incongruous if we view both as neutral. Only if God is supposed to be good, and suffering is taken for granted to be bad do we have anything we can ask about the situation. Only then would they be "incongruous." And then, of course, we'd have to know that incongruity, in this case, was bad or "problematic."
In case you didn’t see, there are two posts where I didn’t tag you just above this (maybe you did, just letting you know just in case). Erin is me btw. I was pointing out that you do have reason to suspect “Erin doesn’t make long-winded posts” is false; that there’s a “problem” with that premise (problem does not denote a moral problem, consider having a problem with your toaster), and that your observations of Erin are incongruous with the postulate that she doesn’t post long-windedly.
User avatar
Immanuel Can
Posts: 27604
Joined: Wed Sep 25, 2013 4:42 pm

Re: Omniscience and omnibenevolence

Post by Immanuel Can »

Astro Cat wrote: Tue Feb 28, 2023 2:04 am Don’t feel the need to respond to everything I’ve typed lol. I have a lot of energy right now so I’m giving the Problem from the beginning.

This argument is for anyone that believes:

P1) God created the world, its inhabitants, and its physics
P2) God is omnipotent: He has the power to actualize any logically possible state of affairs according to His nature
P3) God is omniscient: He knows all possible true propositions and never believes any false propositions
P4) God’s nature is such that He would never cause or allow gratuitous suffering
Let's grant them all. And let's add a conclusion.

C) God doesn't cause or allow gratuitious suffering.

Which is what Christians insist is the case, I would say.
Can you agree that this isn’t about what God “ought” to do?
I just did. But since there's no "ought" involved, what's the question?
But I think many theists intuitively believe P4 as presented, so the Problem has teeth.
I don't see that it has any "teeth" at all. Did we not say there was no moral judgment implicated, no "ought"? And we've admitted, as well, that we have no evidence to warrant belief in "gratuitous" suffering, in the first place.

The whole thing looks fairly limp, at the moment. But I'm hoping you can fortify it with some evidence of both a "gratutiousness" and a moral weight of some kind...otherwise...not so interesting. Certainly no kind of challenge to Theism.
Post Reply