Re: What could make morality objective?
Posted: Thu Feb 10, 2022 8:24 am
Well, if all we're talking about is the existence of things not being observed, then I absolutely affirm their existence. There's no reason to believe that unobserved things cease to exist. If that's what a 'thing-in-itself' really is, then my 'features of reality that are the case' are indeed what Kant called 'noumena'.Veritas Aequitas wrote: ↑Thu Feb 10, 2022 5:07 amNote your post where it is implied you are claiming for things-in-themselves or reality-in-itself;Peter Holmes wrote: ↑Wed Feb 09, 2022 9:52 am1 I don't claim there are things-in-themselves. I have no idea what a thing-in-itself could be. So you've invented that straw man.Veritas Aequitas wrote: ↑Wed Feb 09, 2022 5:13 am
That's a Strawman. You got it wrong again.
Point is people who are Philosophical Realists [you for example] are the ones who claim that there are things-in-themselves, i.e. things existing absolutely independent of the human conditions.
What Kant and the likes stated there is no such things as things-in-themselves or a thing-in-itself and to reify it as really existing is an illusion.
Note I mentioned thing-in-itself [things-in-themselves] as ILLUSIONS many times [didn't you read & get it?].
Since it is an illusion, it implied it is not real so there is nothing to be know about it as real nor can it [an illusion] be described in the real sense. You missed out a lot of relevant nuances on the issue.
There is no way, Kant and likes would claim,
then the claim that we cannot perceive, know or describe reality-as-it-really-is,
in the ultimate sense [not conventional sense].
The point is people like you are naturally [evolutionarily] driven by desperate psychology to insist upon the existence of thing-in-itself or things-in-themselves as real and thus grasping at illusory things that are not real in the ultimate sense [not conventional sense].
I have NEVER claim scientific facts by themselves as [is-es] directly entail a moral 'ought'.
What you should counter is,
Scientific facts by themselves cannot entail moral oughts, even when processed via a Moral FSK?
Give your justification 'why not' if processed via a Moral FSK, note 'Moral FSK'?
I have already explained with examples and analogies, objective moral principles 'ought' are derived as 'output' from a credible Moral FSK [like a Moral Factory] with inputs from scientific facts, other evidences and philosophical reasoning. Note, such moral oughts are never enforceable but merely used as guides for moral progress.
Here is Kant with more severe warnings on how you and the likes get deluded with the illusion that there are things and reality that is absolutely independent of the human conditions.
Kant is very serious and thorough on how people like you are deluded [ultimate senses, not conventional sense].
- And secondly, both it and its opposite must involve no mere artificial Illusion such as at once vanishes upon detection,
but a natural and unavoidable Illusion,
which even after it has ceased to beguile still continues to delude though not to deceive us,
and which though thus capable of being rendered harmless can never be eradicated. B449
Even the wisest of men cannot free himself from them {the illusions}.
After long effort he perhaps succeeds in guarding himself against actual error; but he will never be able to free himself from the Illusion, which unceasingly mocks and torments him. B397
..the Ideas produce what, though a mere Illusion,
is nonetheless irresistible, and the harmful influence of which we can barely succeed in neutralizing even by means of the severest criticism. B670
But there is no end to such discussions, unless we can penetrate to the True Cause of the Illusion by which even the wisest are deceived.B731
The problem here is you don't even have the competence to understand [not necessary agree] what Kant is talking about to begin to contribute any rational counter to his claims.
What you have always done is merely throwing childish jabs without any sound counter arguments.
When you claim there are features of reality, which you can describe only, you are implying there exists a thing or reality which is absolutely independent of humans' opinions and beliefs.Peter Holmes wrote: ↑Sun Feb 06, 2022 6:35 pm Veritas Aequitas
Here's my diagnosis of our disagreement. My starting point is what could be called a methodological taxonomy. I think there are three separate and different things, which it's a mistake to muddle up, as follows.
1 Features of reality that are or were the case. (The branch of philosophy that deals with these is ontology.)
2 What we believe or know about these features of reality. (The branch of philosophy that deals with this is epistemology.)
3 What we say about features of reality, which (in classical logic) may be true or false, given the way we use the words of other signs involved, in context. (Logic deals with what can be said consistently, without contradiction, in context.)
That reality which is described is your so-called reality-in-itself, thing-in-itself or things-in-themselves which exists independent of the human conditions.
The above statement is insufficient, rather it isThe thing-in-itself (German: Ding an sich) is a concept introduced by Immanuel Kant. Things-in-themselves would be objects as they are, independent of observation.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thing-in-itself
objects as they are, independent of observation, descriptions, opinions and beliefs.
This is exactly the same as your 'reality' which has features, that is the case and can be described, etc. which is independent of human descriptions, opinions and beliefs.
You still deny your reality not reality-in-itself and the things therein are things-in-themselves?
But, wait, Kant said that noumena don't exist - that unobserved things don't exist!? He was even wronger than I thought. Barmy.