I don't have to (demonstrate more than one chain exists) to claim you can't PROVE "if C1 and C2 are chains of causality in the universe, C1 = C2". That is the formal statement of "only one chain/First Cause". That you need another axiom for that.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Wed Jul 22, 2026 2:33 pm
My argument is that there was at least one First Cause. Yours is that there plausibly could have been more or many. Prima facie, my argument is in a better position relative to Occam's Rule. So the burden of proof falls on the one supposing a multiplicity.
That would be you. Having seen that at least one First Cause is necessary, make your case for more...
Occam's razor not useful for proofs, and in any case, why would you imagine it applied here. I can see how you might argue one chain is simpler/more likely than any other specific number of chains, but more likely than ANY other number? There are an awful lot lot of them. Saying "one more likely than two, one more likely than three, ..... Pick any amount of "more likely" you want. For example, if you say (by Occam) one is a hundred times more likely than two, than three, etc. I am not going to PICK a particular number but instead point out that (1 - .01) ** N << the likelihood by which one is more likely than all number up to N >> approaches zero as N increases, and N is without limit.