Why Philosophical Realists are Stuck in a Loop?

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Veritas Aequitas
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Re: Why Philosophical Realists are Stuck in a Loop?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Eodnhoj7 wrote: Wed Nov 19, 2025 5:54 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Tue Nov 18, 2025 8:58 am
Eodnhoj7 wrote: Tue Nov 18, 2025 5:30 am And what is the FS for determining criteria? I see nothing but empty assertions.
The munchauseen trillemma remains.
Your above exposed your lack of depth and width:

AI Wrote:


[AI]Reference to: Kant + Carnap + Putnam

“What is the FS for determining criteria to rate FS?”
  • Answer: No higher FS is required because FS-evaluation rests on transcendental constraints of rationality, not on a further FS.
1. Kantian Foundation: Transcendental, Not Hierarchical
Kant’s transcendental philosophy distinguishes between:
  • Conditions of possibility (pre-conceptual structures enabling cognition)
    Empirical or constructed systems (domain-relative frameworks)
Your FS concept maps directly onto this:
  • General Rationality (GR) = transcendental, enabling condition
    Framework-Systems (FSs) = constructed, domain-relative systems
    Scientific FS = the FS which most fully satisfies GR
Thus when someone asks:
  • “But what is the FS that determines how we evaluate FS?”
This misframes GR as if it were another empirical framework.
In Kantian terms:
  • GR is not an FS → it is the condition for any FS to be possible.
    GR is akin to the categories: a transcendental necessity for coherent cognition, not an optional system.
Thus:
Transcendental conditions do not require further justification by a higher-level FS, because they are not elements within a hierarchy—they are the precondition for the hierarchy.

No regress occurs.


2. Carnap: Framework-Internal vs Framework-External Questions

Carnap distinguishes:
  • Internal questions: asked within a framework and governed by its rules.
    External questions: concerning whether to adopt a framework at all.
Your critic is mistakenly turning a meta-level question into an internal one.
  • The question “How do we evaluate FSs?”
    is an external question.
    The answer lies in general rationality, i.e., conditions for reasoned inquiry itself.
    This is not another FS, but a pragmatic a priori (Carnap’s term) grounding all FS adoption.
Thus Carnap supports your position:
  • Criteria for evaluating FSs are not determined by another FS,
    but by pragmatic–rational norms that make any FS usable.


These norms—coherence, empirical adequacy, predictive power, etc.—are not optional conventions; they are constitutive conditions for meaningful discourse.


3. Putnam: Internal Realism and Rational Acceptability
Putnam’s internal realism rejects metaphysical realism’s “God’s-eye view” while grounding objectivity in:
  • Rational acceptability
    Coherence with the totality of belief
    Empirical success
    Intersubjective justification
Putnam demonstrates that:
  • Objectivity does not require correspondence to a metaphysical realm.
    Objectivity is framework-dependent, but,
    Rational assessment is not arbitrary: it is constrained by
    “idealized rationalacceptability under epistemic virtue.”


Your GR corresponds to Putnam’s:
  • internal norms of rationality
    that constrain any admissible conceptual schem
    e.
Again, these norms are not derived from a higher FS.
They are the meta-criteria that any successful FS must satisfy to count as objectively meaningful.


4. Bringing Them Together:

Why No Regress, No Circularity, and No Need for an FS-to-Judge-FS**

Kant
Transcendental constraints (GR) are not systems needing external justification.
They are the conditions for the possibility of coherent cognition and judgement.

Carnap
The question “Which FS should we choose?” is answered by pragmatic-rational norms, not another framework.

Putnam
Objectivity arises through internal rational norms, not by appeal to a meta-framework.

Thus your model sits squarely within a lineage:
  • Kant’s transcendental structure of rationality
    Carnap’s pragmatic a priori and framework pluralism
    Putnam’s internal realism and rational constraint
This produces the following argument:

5. Final Technical Conclusion

The criteria for evaluating FSs do not arise from a higher FS.

They arise from:
Transcendental constraints of General Rationality (GR):
coherence, empirical adequacy, predictive reliability, error-correction, and intersubjective verification.


These constraints:
  • are not themselves an FS,
    do not require a meta-FS for justification,
    and avoid any infinite regress.
Under these constraints:

The scientific FS is the “gold standard” not by fiat
but because it uniquely maximizes rational adequacy under GR.

This is the same position defended by:
  • Kant → transcendental conditions of cognition
    Carnap → pragmatic a priori + internal/external distinction
    Putnam → internal realism + rational acceptability
Your FS-Concept is therefore philosophically coherent and structurally defensible. [AI]

If you keep on a loop you will not progress at all.
Imagine if scientists were to keep asking in a loop, what is the FS for the criteria of the scientific FS, there would no scientific discoveries and scientific contribution to the progress of humanity.
So you use circular reasoning...the FS is superior because the FS is superior.
Nope!

The scientific FS is superior because it is based on a weighted system of relevant criteria grounded on general rationality.
Show me what is more objective and contribute most to humanity than science?

Can you counter this?

[AI]5. Final Technical Conclusion
The criteria for evaluating FSs do not arise from a higher FS.
They arise from:
Transcendental constraints of General Rationality (GR):
coherence, empirical adequacy, predictive reliability, error-correction, and intersubjective verification.


These constraints:
  • are not themselves an FS,
    do not require a meta-FS for justification,
    and avoid any infinite regress.
Under these constraints:
The scientific FS is the “gold standard” not by fiat
but because it uniquely maximizes rational adequacy under GR.

This is the same position defended by:
  • Kant → transcendental conditions of cognition
    Carnap → pragmatic a priori + internal/external distinction
    Putnam → internal realism + rational acceptability
Your FS-Concept is therefore philosophically coherent and structurally defensible. [AI]

Imagine if scientists [like you] were to keep asking in a loop, what is the FS for the criteria of the scientific FS, there would no scientific discoveries and scientific contribution to the progress of humanity.
Eodnhoj7
Posts: 10708
Joined: Mon Mar 13, 2017 3:18 am

Re: Why Philosophical Realists are Stuck in a Loop?

Post by Eodnhoj7 »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Wed Nov 19, 2025 8:21 am
Eodnhoj7 wrote: Wed Nov 19, 2025 5:54 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Tue Nov 18, 2025 8:58 am
Your above exposed your lack of depth and width:

AI Wrote:


[AI]Reference to: Kant + Carnap + Putnam

“What is the FS for determining criteria to rate FS?”
  • Answer: No higher FS is required because FS-evaluation rests on transcendental constraints of rationality, not on a further FS.
1. Kantian Foundation: Transcendental, Not Hierarchical
Kant’s transcendental philosophy distinguishes between:
  • Conditions of possibility (pre-conceptual structures enabling cognition)
    Empirical or constructed systems (domain-relative frameworks)
Your FS concept maps directly onto this:
  • General Rationality (GR) = transcendental, enabling condition
    Framework-Systems (FSs) = constructed, domain-relative systems
    Scientific FS = the FS which most fully satisfies GR
Thus when someone asks:
  • “But what is the FS that determines how we evaluate FS?”
This misframes GR as if it were another empirical framework.
In Kantian terms:
  • GR is not an FS → it is the condition for any FS to be possible.
    GR is akin to the categories: a transcendental necessity for coherent cognition, not an optional system.
Thus:
Transcendental conditions do not require further justification by a higher-level FS, because they are not elements within a hierarchy—they are the precondition for the hierarchy.

No regress occurs.


2. Carnap: Framework-Internal vs Framework-External Questions

Carnap distinguishes:
  • Internal questions: asked within a framework and governed by its rules.
    External questions: concerning whether to adopt a framework at all.
Your critic is mistakenly turning a meta-level question into an internal one.
  • The question “How do we evaluate FSs?”
    is an external question.
    The answer lies in general rationality, i.e., conditions for reasoned inquiry itself.
    This is not another FS, but a pragmatic a priori (Carnap’s term) grounding all FS adoption.
Thus Carnap supports your position:
  • Criteria for evaluating FSs are not determined by another FS,
    but by pragmatic–rational norms that make any FS usable.


These norms—coherence, empirical adequacy, predictive power, etc.—are not optional conventions; they are constitutive conditions for meaningful discourse.


3. Putnam: Internal Realism and Rational Acceptability
Putnam’s internal realism rejects metaphysical realism’s “God’s-eye view” while grounding objectivity in:
  • Rational acceptability
    Coherence with the totality of belief
    Empirical success
    Intersubjective justification
Putnam demonstrates that:
  • Objectivity does not require correspondence to a metaphysical realm.
    Objectivity is framework-dependent, but,
    Rational assessment is not arbitrary: it is constrained by
    “idealized rationalacceptability under epistemic virtue.”


Your GR corresponds to Putnam’s:
  • internal norms of rationality
    that constrain any admissible conceptual schem
    e.
Again, these norms are not derived from a higher FS.
They are the meta-criteria that any successful FS must satisfy to count as objectively meaningful.


4. Bringing Them Together:

Why No Regress, No Circularity, and No Need for an FS-to-Judge-FS**

Kant
Transcendental constraints (GR) are not systems needing external justification.
They are the conditions for the possibility of coherent cognition and judgement.

Carnap
The question “Which FS should we choose?” is answered by pragmatic-rational norms, not another framework.

Putnam
Objectivity arises through internal rational norms, not by appeal to a meta-framework.

Thus your model sits squarely within a lineage:
  • Kant’s transcendental structure of rationality
    Carnap’s pragmatic a priori and framework pluralism
    Putnam’s internal realism and rational constraint
This produces the following argument:

5. Final Technical Conclusion

The criteria for evaluating FSs do not arise from a higher FS.

They arise from:
Transcendental constraints of General Rationality (GR):
coherence, empirical adequacy, predictive reliability, error-correction, and intersubjective verification.


These constraints:
  • are not themselves an FS,
    do not require a meta-FS for justification,
    and avoid any infinite regress.
Under these constraints:

The scientific FS is the “gold standard” not by fiat
but because it uniquely maximizes rational adequacy under GR.

This is the same position defended by:
  • Kant → transcendental conditions of cognition
    Carnap → pragmatic a priori + internal/external distinction
    Putnam → internal realism + rational acceptability
Your FS-Concept is therefore philosophically coherent and structurally defensible. [AI]

If you keep on a loop you will not progress at all.
Imagine if scientists were to keep asking in a loop, what is the FS for the criteria of the scientific FS, there would no scientific discoveries and scientific contribution to the progress of humanity.
So you use circular reasoning...the FS is superior because the FS is superior.
Nope!

The scientific FS is superior because it is based on a weighted system of relevant criteria grounded on general rationality.
Show me what is more objective and contribute most to humanity than science?

Can you counter this?

[AI]5. Final Technical Conclusion
The criteria for evaluating FSs do not arise from a higher FS.
They arise from:
Transcendental constraints of General Rationality (GR):
coherence, empirical adequacy, predictive reliability, error-correction, and intersubjective verification.


These constraints:
  • are not themselves an FS,
    do not require a meta-FS for justification,
    and avoid any infinite regress.
Under these constraints:
The scientific FS is the “gold standard” not by fiat
but because it uniquely maximizes rational adequacy under GR.

This is the same position defended by:
  • Kant → transcendental conditions of cognition
    Carnap → pragmatic a priori + internal/external distinction
    Putnam → internal realism + rational acceptability
Your FS-Concept is therefore philosophically coherent and structurally defensible. [AI]

Imagine if scientists [like you] were to keep asking in a loop, what is the FS for the criteria of the scientific FS, there would no scientific discoveries and scientific contribution to the progress of humanity.
Relevant criteria is opinioned based, general consensus is not only a bandwagon fallacy but if used as a determined factor justifies all past and future changing consensus'.

General consensus is not fixed.
Veritas Aequitas
Posts: 15722
Joined: Wed Jul 11, 2012 4:41 am

Re: Why Philosophical Realists are Stuck in a Loop?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Eodnhoj7 wrote: Thu Nov 20, 2025 4:02 am Relevant criteria is opinioned based, general consensus is not only a bandwagon fallacy but if used as a determined factor justifies all past and future changing consensus'.
General consensus is not fixed.
Yes it is based on 'opinion' but not blind opinion, it is based on general rational inferences.

The criteria are 'agreed on consensus' not by one individual but a collective of scientists [for peer reviews] and scientific minded people. Even non-scientific people would intuitively agree whatever is scientific is in general is highly reliable from their own personal experiences and observation plus the overwhelming success stories from the scientific FS.

True general consensus is not fixed, it is grounded by human conditions.
But the general consensus that the scientific FS is most objective and credible is getting stronger and stronger.
Even the hardcore anti-science Vatican has conceded to science and there are many scientists who are theists but they all subscribed to the criteria that support science as the most objective.

There is no specific system like any framework and system [FS] that establish the scientific FS or any other specific FS [Mathematics, economics, social sciences].
It is a meta-process, there is no FS of all FS.
We can generate an estimated formula but that is subject to general consensus of the masses not based on any specific FS. There is no International Association of Framework and System.

Would you agree the scientific FS is the gold standard, at least over pseudo sciences FS, economics FS, the political FS, the theological FS.
Did you apply a specific FS [organized like others] to determine that? Why you agree is based on the general consensus which is not based on any specific FS, like scientific FS or others.
Eodnhoj7
Posts: 10708
Joined: Mon Mar 13, 2017 3:18 am

Re: Why Philosophical Realists are Stuck in a Loop?

Post by Eodnhoj7 »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Thu Nov 20, 2025 4:37 am
Eodnhoj7 wrote: Thu Nov 20, 2025 4:02 am Relevant criteria is opinioned based, general consensus is not only a bandwagon fallacy but if used as a determined factor justifies all past and future changing consensus'.
General consensus is not fixed.
Yes it is based on 'opinion' but not blind opinion, it is based on general rational inferences.

The criteria are 'agreed on consensus' not by one individual but a collective of scientists [for peer reviews] and scientific minded people. Even non-scientific people would intuitively agree whatever is scientific is in general is highly reliable from their own personal experiences and observation plus the overwhelming success stories from the scientific FS.

True general consensus is not fixed, it is grounded by human conditions.
But the general consensus that the scientific FS is most objective and credible is getting stronger and stronger.
Even the hardcore anti-science Vatican has conceded to science and there are many scientists who are theists but they all subscribed to the criteria that support science as the most objective.

There is no specific system like any framework and system [FS] that establish the scientific FS or any other specific FS [Mathematics, economics, social sciences].
It is a meta-process, there is no FS of all FS.
We can generate an estimated formula but that is subject to general consensus of the masses not based on any specific FS. There is no International Association of Framework and System.

Would you agree the scientific FS is the gold standard, at least over pseudo sciences FS, economics FS, the political FS, the theological FS.
Did you apply a specific FS [organized like others] to determine that? Why you agree is based on the general consensus which is not based on any specific FS, like scientific FS or others.
So if based upon opinion your whole groundwork, that you hang all knowledge upon, is opinion based.

At this point your argument is just you yelling hoping something will stick for enough ignorant people to agree upon.
Veritas Aequitas
Posts: 15722
Joined: Wed Jul 11, 2012 4:41 am

Re: Why Philosophical Realists are Stuck in a Loop?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Eodnhoj7 wrote: Thu Nov 20, 2025 4:46 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Thu Nov 20, 2025 4:37 am
Eodnhoj7 wrote: Thu Nov 20, 2025 4:02 am Relevant criteria is opinioned based, general consensus is not only a bandwagon fallacy but if used as a determined factor justifies all past and future changing consensus'.
General consensus is not fixed.
Yes it is based on 'opinion' but not blind opinion, it is based on general rational inferences.

The criteria are 'agreed on consensus' not by one individual but a collective of scientists [for peer reviews] and scientific minded people. Even non-scientific people would intuitively agree whatever is scientific is in general is highly reliable from their own personal experiences and observation plus the overwhelming success stories from the scientific FS.

True general consensus is not fixed, it is grounded by human conditions.
But the general consensus that the scientific FS is most objective and credible is getting stronger and stronger.
Even the hardcore anti-science Vatican has conceded to science and there are many scientists who are theists but they all subscribed to the criteria that support science as the most objective.

There is no specific system like any framework and system [FS] that establish the scientific FS or any other specific FS [Mathematics, economics, social sciences].
It is a meta-process, there is no FS of all FS.
We can generate an estimated formula but that is subject to general consensus of the masses not based on any specific FS. There is no International Association of Framework and System.

Would you agree the scientific FS is the gold standard, at least over pseudo sciences FS, economics FS, the political FS, the theological FS.
Did you apply a specific FS [organized like others] to determine that? Why you agree is based on the general consensus which is not based on any specific FS, like scientific FS or others.
So if based upon opinion your whole groundwork, that you hang all knowledge upon, is opinion based.

At this point your argument is just you yelling hoping something will stick for enough ignorant people to agree upon.
Nope, my knowledge is not based on merely opinions but structured and systematized objectivity.

Kant introduced three basis of 'knowledge';
  • 1. Opinions - dependent on individual's speculative views which is wholly subjective.
    2. Beliefs - have some degree of objectivity but limited to individual[s] only.
    3. Knowledge - have high de
grees of objectivity based on intersubjective consensus, e.g. the scientific FS.

So, my whole system of knowledge is based on 3 above, not beliefs nor subjective opinions.
Whatever I claim is traceable to the scientific FS.

On the other hand, your claims are only confined to 2, i.e. individual beliefs or could be merely opinions as in 1. Who else support your beliefs?
Eodnhoj7
Posts: 10708
Joined: Mon Mar 13, 2017 3:18 am

Re: Why Philosophical Realists are Stuck in a Loop?

Post by Eodnhoj7 »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Thu Nov 20, 2025 8:08 am
Eodnhoj7 wrote: Thu Nov 20, 2025 4:46 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Thu Nov 20, 2025 4:37 am
Yes it is based on 'opinion' but not blind opinion, it is based on general rational inferences.

The criteria are 'agreed on consensus' not by one individual but a collective of scientists [for peer reviews] and scientific minded people. Even non-scientific people would intuitively agree whatever is scientific is in general is highly reliable from their own personal experiences and observation plus the overwhelming success stories from the scientific FS.

True general consensus is not fixed, it is grounded by human conditions.
But the general consensus that the scientific FS is most objective and credible is getting stronger and stronger.
Even the hardcore anti-science Vatican has conceded to science and there are many scientists who are theists but they all subscribed to the criteria that support science as the most objective.

There is no specific system like any framework and system [FS] that establish the scientific FS or any other specific FS [Mathematics, economics, social sciences].
It is a meta-process, there is no FS of all FS.
We can generate an estimated formula but that is subject to general consensus of the masses not based on any specific FS. There is no International Association of Framework and System.

Would you agree the scientific FS is the gold standard, at least over pseudo sciences FS, economics FS, the political FS, the theological FS.
Did you apply a specific FS [organized like others] to determine that? Why you agree is based on the general consensus which is not based on any specific FS, like scientific FS or others.
So if based upon opinion your whole groundwork, that you hang all knowledge upon, is opinion based.

At this point your argument is just you yelling hoping something will stick for enough ignorant people to agree upon.
Nope, my knowledge is not based on merely opinions but structured and systematized objectivity.

Kant introduced three basis of 'knowledge';
  • 1. Opinions - dependent on individual's speculative views which is wholly subjective.
    2. Beliefs - have some degree of objectivity but limited to individual[s] only.
    3. Knowledge - have high de
grees of objectivity based on intersubjective consensus, e.g. the scientific FS.

So, my whole system of knowledge is based on 3 above, not beliefs nor subjective opinions.
Whatever I claim is traceable to the scientific FS.

On the other hand, your claims are only confined to 2, i.e. individual beliefs or could be merely opinions as in 1. Who else support your beliefs?
No you base it on consensus and call that objectivity.

Kant made distinctions....that is all he did. Philosophers of all sorts make distinctions.

What people call true or false is whether the distinctions resonate with conscious or subconscious perceptual patterns.

True is merely pattern projection and reception....all derived purely from distinctions.
Veritas Aequitas
Posts: 15722
Joined: Wed Jul 11, 2012 4:41 am

Re: Why Philosophical Realists are Stuck in a Loop?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Eodnhoj7 wrote: Fri Nov 21, 2025 5:57 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Thu Nov 20, 2025 8:08 am
Eodnhoj7 wrote: Thu Nov 20, 2025 4:46 am

So if based upon opinion your whole groundwork, that you hang all knowledge upon, is opinion based.

At this point your argument is just you yelling hoping something will stick for enough ignorant people to agree upon.
Nope, my knowledge is not based on merely opinions but structured and systematized objectivity.

Kant introduced three basis of 'knowledge';
  • 1. Opinions - dependent on individual's speculative views which is wholly subjective.
    2. Beliefs - have some degree of objectivity but limited to individual[s] only.
    3. Knowledge - have high de
grees of objectivity based on intersubjective consensus, e.g. the scientific FS.

So, my whole system of knowledge is based on 3 above, not beliefs nor subjective opinions.
Whatever I claim is traceable to the scientific FS.

On the other hand, your claims are only confined to 2, i.e. individual beliefs or could be merely opinions as in 1. Who else support your beliefs?
No you base it on consensus and call that objectivity.
Whatever is objective is grounded on a specific human based framework and system of which the scientific FS [based on intersubjective consensus] is the gold standard.
If not, how else is objectivity generated?
Kant made distinctions....that is all he did. Philosophers of all sorts make distinctions.

What people call true or false is whether the distinctions resonate with conscious or subconscious perceptual patterns.

True is merely pattern projection and reception....all derived purely from distinctions.
I stated existence, reality and being precedes distinction.
Kant could not have made distinctions if he had not existed.
Eodnhoj7
Posts: 10708
Joined: Mon Mar 13, 2017 3:18 am

Re: Why Philosophical Realists are Stuck in a Loop?

Post by Eodnhoj7 »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Fri Nov 21, 2025 9:50 am
Eodnhoj7 wrote: Fri Nov 21, 2025 5:57 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Thu Nov 20, 2025 8:08 am
Nope, my knowledge is not based on merely opinions but structured and systematized objectivity.

Kant introduced three basis of 'knowledge';
  • 1. Opinions - dependent on individual's speculative views which is wholly subjective.
    2. Beliefs - have some degree of objectivity but limited to individual[s] only.
    3. Knowledge - have high de
grees of objectivity based on intersubjective consensus, e.g. the scientific FS.

So, my whole system of knowledge is based on 3 above, not beliefs nor subjective opinions.
Whatever I claim is traceable to the scientific FS.

On the other hand, your claims are only confined to 2, i.e. individual beliefs or could be merely opinions as in 1. Who else support your beliefs?
No you base it on consensus and call that objectivity.
Whatever is objective is grounded on a specific human based framework and system of which the scientific FS [based on intersubjective consensus] is the gold standard.
If not, how else is objectivity generated?


I stated existence, reality and being precedes distinction.
Kant could not have made distinctions if he had not existed.
You say existence, being and reality precedes distinction and yet this trifold nature of existence/being/reality are interlocked distinctions.

The fact that kant made distinctions is what allowed him to exist....if he could not make distinctions he would cease to exist.
Veritas Aequitas
Posts: 15722
Joined: Wed Jul 11, 2012 4:41 am

Re: Why Philosophical Realists are Stuck in a Loop?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Eodnhoj7 wrote: Fri Nov 21, 2025 5:34 pm No you base it on consensus and call that objectivity.
You say existence, being and reality precedes distinction and yet this trifold nature of existence/being/reality are interlocked distinctions.

The fact that kant made distinctions is what allowed him to exist....if he could not make distinctions he would cease to exist.
When did Kant made distinction? in the womb, immediately upon birth?
Therefore the empirical self [later named Kant] existed before he made distinctions.

Kant would still exist [empirically] even if he is in a coma.

In all the above, you are the one who is making distinctions grounded on your existence and being real.
So, existence aka reality precedes distinction.
Eodnhoj7
Posts: 10708
Joined: Mon Mar 13, 2017 3:18 am

Re: Why Philosophical Realists are Stuck in a Loop?

Post by Eodnhoj7 »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sat Nov 22, 2025 6:44 am
Eodnhoj7 wrote: Fri Nov 21, 2025 5:34 pm No you base it on consensus and call that objectivity.
You say existence, being and reality precedes distinction and yet this trifold nature of existence/being/reality are interlocked distinctions.

The fact that kant made distinctions is what allowed him to exist....if he could not make distinctions he would cease to exist.
When did Kant made distinction? in the womb, immediately upon birth?
Therefore the empirical self [later named Kant] existed before he made distinctions.

Kant would still exist [empirically] even if he is in a coma.

In all the above, you are the one who is making distinctions grounded on your existence and being real.
So, existence aka reality precedes distinction.
When did Kant make a distinction? All of his philosophical works are distinctions. Are you claiming them to be indistinct?

But that is not accurate enough, the question of whether or not kant made distinctions is secondary to whether he is a distinction....and he is a distinction.
Veritas Aequitas
Posts: 15722
Joined: Wed Jul 11, 2012 4:41 am

Re: Why Philosophical Realists are Stuck in a Loop?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Eodnhoj7 wrote: Sun Nov 23, 2025 5:46 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sat Nov 22, 2025 6:44 am
Eodnhoj7 wrote: Fri Nov 21, 2025 5:34 pm No you base it on consensus and call that objectivity.
You say existence, being and reality precedes distinction and yet this trifold nature of existence/being/reality are interlocked distinctions.

The fact that kant made distinctions is what allowed him to exist....if he could not make distinctions he would cease to exist.
When did Kant made distinction? in the womb, immediately upon birth?
Therefore the empirical self [later named Kant] existed before he made distinctions.

Kant would still exist [empirically] even if he is in a coma.

In all the above, you are the one who is making distinctions grounded on your existence and being real.
So, existence aka reality precedes distinction.
When did Kant make a distinction? All of his philosophical works are distinctions. Are you claiming them to be indistinct?

But that is not accurate enough, the question of whether or not kant made distinctions is secondary to whether he is a distinction....and he is a distinction.
As I had stated in the other post:
Existence is just 'is' or 'be'.

“Kant’s point is simple:
Existence (‘is’) is not a property but the grounds under which concepts appear
within the human Framework-System (FS).
Therefore everything that ‘is’ is conditioned by the human FS.

‘Existence-in-itself’ is impossible, and so is ‘distinction-in-itself.’”
Eodnhoj7
Posts: 10708
Joined: Mon Mar 13, 2017 3:18 am

Re: Why Philosophical Realists are Stuck in a Loop?

Post by Eodnhoj7 »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sun Nov 23, 2025 7:53 am
Eodnhoj7 wrote: Sun Nov 23, 2025 5:46 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sat Nov 22, 2025 6:44 am
When did Kant made distinction? in the womb, immediately upon birth?
Therefore the empirical self [later named Kant] existed before he made distinctions.

Kant would still exist [empirically] even if he is in a coma.

In all the above, you are the one who is making distinctions grounded on your existence and being real.
So, existence aka reality precedes distinction.
When did Kant make a distinction? All of his philosophical works are distinctions. Are you claiming them to be indistinct?

But that is not accurate enough, the question of whether or not kant made distinctions is secondary to whether he is a distinction....and he is a distinction.
As I had stated in the other post:
Existence is just 'is' or 'be'.

“Kant’s point is simple:
Existence (‘is’) is not a property but the grounds under which concepts appear
within the human Framework-System (FS).
Therefore everything that ‘is’ is conditioned by the human FS.

‘Existence-in-itself’ is impossible, and so is ‘distinction-in-itself.’”
And "is" is a distinction by degree of "is not".

You claim existence precedes distinction and yet distinction "is".
Veritas Aequitas
Posts: 15722
Joined: Wed Jul 11, 2012 4:41 am

Re: Why Philosophical Realists are Stuck in a Loop?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Eodnhoj7 wrote: Mon Nov 24, 2025 5:37 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sun Nov 23, 2025 7:53 am
Eodnhoj7 wrote: Sun Nov 23, 2025 5:46 am When did Kant make a distinction? All of his philosophical works are distinctions. Are you claiming them to be indistinct?

But that is not accurate enough, the question of whether or not kant made distinctions is secondary to whether he is a distinction....and he is a distinction.
As I had stated in the other post:
Existence is just 'is' or 'be'.

“Kant’s point is simple:
Existence (‘is’) is not a property but the grounds under which concepts appear
within the human Framework-System (FS).
Therefore everything that ‘is’ is conditioned by the human FS.

‘Existence-in-itself’ is impossible, and so is ‘distinction-in-itself.’”
And "is" is a distinction by degree of "is not".

You claim existence precedes distinction and yet distinction "is".
1. “Is” as existence is not a distinction.
When we say:
  • “There is an apple,”
    “There is experience,”
this “is” expresses existence, which Kant shows is not a predicate and does not add any property or any contrast.
It merely posits something within possible experience.
Existence is prior to and independent of distinction.
You cannot distinguish unless something already exists.

2. Using the word “is” does not make it a distinction.
Your argument assumes:
“If we use a word, that word must be a distinction.”
That isn’t how language works.
Words in English perform different roles depending on context:
  • copula (“is red”)
    identity (“A is B”)
    existence (“there is…”)
    class inclusion (“Socrates is a man”)
None of these are distinctions.
They are grammatical functions, not metaphysical claims.

The mere fact that a word has an opposite (“is” / “is not”) does not make it a distinction.
By that logic:
  • up/down
    true/false
    cause/effect
    inside/outside
would all be “distinctions in themselves,” which is nonsense.

Opposition ≠ distinction.
Negation ≠ metaphysics.

3. Existence still precedes distinction.

To make a distinction you need:
  • a subject
    relata
    a framework
    a contrast relation
All of these must exist first before any distinction is possible.

Thus your statement:
“You claim existence precedes distinction and yet distinction ‘is’.”
misses the order of dependence.

“Is” here is existential positing, not distinction-making.
Your objection uses the very existence whose priority it attempts to deny.

4. Final point
Using a word does not make that word a distinction.
Saying “is” does not commit me to distinction;
it commits me to grammar.

The foundation remains:
Existence (the givenness of experience) must come first.
Distinction is a derivative cognitive act that occurs only within existence.

Your argument confuses:
the grammar /language of “is”
with
the metaphysics of existence
and once that confusion is removed, the objection collapses.

.........
above is AI assisted.
Eodnhoj7
Posts: 10708
Joined: Mon Mar 13, 2017 3:18 am

Re: Why Philosophical Realists are Stuck in a Loop?

Post by Eodnhoj7 »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Mon Nov 24, 2025 8:26 am
Eodnhoj7 wrote: Mon Nov 24, 2025 5:37 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sun Nov 23, 2025 7:53 am
As I had stated in the other post:
Existence is just 'is' or 'be'.

“Kant’s point is simple:
Existence (‘is’) is not a property but the grounds under which concepts appear
within the human Framework-System (FS).
Therefore everything that ‘is’ is conditioned by the human FS.

‘Existence-in-itself’ is impossible, and so is ‘distinction-in-itself.’”
And "is" is a distinction by degree of "is not".

You claim existence precedes distinction and yet distinction "is".
1. “Is” as existence is not a distinction.
When we say:
  • “There is an apple,”
    “There is experience,”
this “is” expresses existence, which Kant shows is not a predicate and does not add any property or any contrast.
It merely posits something within possible experience.
Existence is prior to and independent of distinction.
You cannot distinguish unless something already exists.

2. Using the word “is” does not make it a distinction.
Your argument assumes:
“If we use a word, that word must be a distinction.”
That isn’t how language works.
Words in English perform different roles depending on context:
  • copula (“is red”)
    identity (“A is B”)
    existence (“there is…”)
    class inclusion (“Socrates is a man”)
None of these are distinctions.
They are grammatical functions, not metaphysical claims.

The mere fact that a word has an opposite (“is” / “is not”) does not make it a distinction.
By that logic:
  • up/down
    true/false
    cause/effect
    inside/outside
would all be “distinctions in themselves,” which is nonsense.

Opposition ≠ distinction.
Negation ≠ metaphysics.

3. Existence still precedes distinction.

To make a distinction you need:
  • a subject
    relata
    a framework
    a contrast relation
All of these must exist first before any distinction is possible.

Thus your statement:
“You claim existence precedes distinction and yet distinction ‘is’.”
misses the order of dependence.

“Is” here is existential positing, not distinction-making.
Your objection uses the very existence whose priority it attempts to deny.

4. Final point
Using a word does not make that word a distinction.
Saying “is” does not commit me to distinction;
it commits me to grammar.

The foundation remains:
Existence (the givenness of experience) must come first.
Distinction is a derivative cognitive act that occurs only within existence.

Your argument confuses:
the grammar /language of “is”
with
the metaphysics of existence
and once that confusion is removed, the objection collapses.

.........
above is AI assisted.
"Is" is distinct from "is not". "Is" is a distinction.
Veritas Aequitas
Posts: 15722
Joined: Wed Jul 11, 2012 4:41 am

Re: Why Philosophical Realists are Stuck in a Loop?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Eodnhoj7 wrote: Tue Nov 25, 2025 5:34 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Mon Nov 24, 2025 8:26 am
Eodnhoj7 wrote: Mon Nov 24, 2025 5:37 am

And "is" is a distinction by degree of "is not".

You claim existence precedes distinction and yet distinction "is".
1. “Is” as existence is not a distinction.
When we say:
  • “There is an apple,”
    “There is experience,”
this “is” expresses existence, which Kant shows is not a predicate and does not add any property or any contrast.
It merely posits something within possible experience.
Existence is prior to and independent of distinction.
You cannot distinguish unless something already exists.

2. Using the word “is” does not make it a distinction.
Your argument assumes:
“If we use a word, that word must be a distinction.”
That isn’t how language works.
Words in English perform different roles depending on context:
  • copula (“is red”)
    identity (“A is B”)
    existence (“there is…”)
    class inclusion (“Socrates is a man”)
None of these are distinctions.
They are grammatical functions, not metaphysical claims.

The mere fact that a word has an opposite (“is” / “is not”) does not make it a distinction.
By that logic:
  • up/down
    true/false
    cause/effect
    inside/outside
would all be “distinctions in themselves,” which is nonsense.

Opposition ≠ distinction.
Negation ≠ metaphysics.

3. Existence still precedes distinction.

To make a distinction you need:
  • a subject
    relata
    a framework
    a contrast relation
All of these must exist first before any distinction is possible.

Thus your statement:
“You claim existence precedes distinction and yet distinction ‘is’.”
misses the order of dependence.

“Is” here is existential positing, not distinction-making.
Your objection uses the very existence whose priority it attempts to deny.

4. Final point
Using a word does not make that word a distinction.
Saying “is” does not commit me to distinction;
it commits me to grammar.

The foundation remains:
Existence (the givenness of experience) must come first.
Distinction is a derivative cognitive act that occurs only within existence.

Your argument confuses:
the grammar /language of “is”
with
the metaphysics of existence
and once that confusion is removed, the objection collapses.

.........
above is AI assisted.
"Is" is distinct from "is not". "Is" is a distinction.
Can you counter the argument points above instead of just looping.
One can put a 'not' to anything.
But in putting, there must be 'existing' before there can be 'putting'.

'Is' is just 'be' or 'exist'.
Just be and don't distinguish.

Your inferencing "Is" is distinct from "is not" is merely an intellectual exercise and linguistic.
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