Yes, I saw...but I can't see anything "unequal" in cases of athletic pain, which is chosen by the athlete, or birth pain, which is chosen by the mother, or the pain of a surgery that saves a life. So I can't agree that pain and bad are the same thing.
That's obviously not the case either. Giving birth is subjectively unpleasant and painful, and yet is the most cherished experience of many women, and one they insist it associated with good, not "badness." Exercise is both painful and healthy, and is highly recommended and freely practiced by athletes, who insist it's "good" for them...and so on.I'm not claiming that pain and bad are the same thing (i.e. numerically identical). I claim that badness is necessarily a property of pain (in the sense in which philosophers usually use the word 'pain'). Let me put this as accurately as I can. By 'pain' I mean any experience that is subjectively unpleasant.
I'm not so sure you're aware of those critiques, which present a substantial challenge to what you're saying. The complications of things like "the pleasure principle" and "the hedonic calculus" have been well-documented and abundantly repeated. It seems tiresome to me to repeat them now, since they're so widely available in the literature. I'm hopeful you've got some acquaintance with them yourself, or will invest the time to do so.I'm sure you are aware that an argument cannot be won simply by claiming that other people have advanced similar arguments.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Fri Apr 18, 2025 2:06 amAnd what I'm saying is not new: all hedonic and hedonistic ethical systems, such as utilitarianism and the other consequentialisms, have been criticized in the same way.
And I'm simply pointing out that that is not the case. There is no such easy association between the two, and the matter is often much more muddled. Pain can be associated with very great goods, such as the acquistion of wisdom or the learning of empathy, with the attaining of improved health and fitness, with heroic sacrifices, and of course with many great achievements. A suffering hero is not considered "bad," because he refuses to compromise his values to avoid pain; indeed, he may well be considered less-heroic or a traitor for accepting a less-painful way out of a situation.No, that misses the point. I am not claiming that there are actual cases where other things are equal. What I mean is that if we ignore all other facts which might alter the moral or evaluative properties of a case, and consider only the unpleasantness of the experience, then it is always the case that that unpleasantness is bad.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Fri Apr 18, 2025 2:06 am You'll have to define very precisely when "things are equal," so to speak...what conditions can signal to us that we have "equality" in a case.
So you're speaking by way of isolating one element of the experience, namely pain, from the total experience, and severing it from the very meaning of the event (such as giving birth to a child or competing in athletics), and then claiming it's evidence that pain is morally "bad"?So, for example, in the case of the surgeon saving the life, if we ignore the fact that a life is being saved, and consider only the pain caused to the patient, it is necessarily the case that that pain, or more accurately the unpleasantness of the pain, is bad.
You're abstracting, and no longer describing any real experience, then. It seems obvious to me that the surgeon does is unquestionably "good" in total, even though it entails the causing of pain and harm. And that is because in reality, it is quite impossible to isolate out and decontextualize "pain" in the way you're suggesting we ought to do. And if we do, we find that we lack the necessary surrounding circumstances to make any moral assessment at all of the situation in hand.
Not at all. I think my objection is a very serious one, and cannot be dismissed by way of mere abstraction of the sort you propose. And I don't think that "unpleasant" can at all be unproblematically or universally associated with moral "badness." There seems to me no link at all: one is mere emotional response, and the other calls on us for an objective moral conclusion. Hume would surely point out the incompatibility of the premise you're implying and any moral conclusion -- a revised "Hume's Guillotine," if you will: emotions severed from morals by way of being different categories.I hope I have answered this point by clarifying that what is bad is the unpleasantness of pain.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Fri Apr 18, 2025 2:06 am You wrote: "It appears to me that the likeability of pleasure and the dislikeability of pain are not merely intrinsic properties, but essential properties."
This creates additional problems: one is that to me, and apparently to a whole lot of the critics of hedonic ethics, it's far from clear that pain is inherently "dislikeable." Rather, that seems to be situationally decided, and there are certainly cases in which pain is accepted or even embraced as "pleasurable" in some other way. (Here, I don't merely allude to phenomena like sadism and masochism, though they also furnish countercases, but in situations in which we note the truthfulness of the ancient observation that suffering is often itself the road to a virtuous outcome, such as the acquiring of wisdom and the improvement of the character.)
Then "pain" and "bad" are, by your own account, no longer equivalent and no longer guarantors of one another -- which is precisely the point in my objection. And the sadist and the masochist are "moral"?If there are indeed people who find pain pleasant, then for those people, pain is not bad.
"Unpleasantness" is even more trivial than "pain." For who promised us that life is not supposed to be "unpleasant"? And if it is, then how on earth do we associate that with any moral quality of "badness"?It is unfortunate that 'pain' is used instead of 'unpleasantness' in philosophy:
I thought I had made this clear. Likeability is an example of a property that gives reason for a pro-response.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Fri Apr 18, 2025 2:06 am But the second problem is even bigger: how do we attach the word "likeabilty" to the words "good" or "essential"? What is there in this world, secularly considered, that would assure us that what we "like" is good, and that we are owed in any moral or even practical sense to have what we "like"? That argument surely needs to be spelled out. That is yet to be achieved here.
I have yet to see you establish that "things one likes" and "moral" are equivalent. A masochist has a "pro-response" to the thought of causing himself pain, and a sadist has a "pro-response" to causing the pain of others, no doubt; and no doubt they can adduce many reasons for their preferences. But their "pro-responses" are clearly no signal of moral goodness.
...All I claim (and let me use the more accurate words this time) is that likeability is an essential property of pleasantness, and dislikeability is an essential property of unpleasantness.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Fri Apr 18, 2025 2:06 am The next problem is in the idea of "essential" moral status. In a world governed by secular assumptions, how do we secure to ourselves the confidence that "good" or "likeability," or any other word you wish, is an "essential" anything? Could we not simply say that the order of Nature (our God substitute) is "red in tooth and claw," or "survival of the fittest," with total disregard for "good" or "like"? Darwinism would certainly hasten us toward that conclusion: so how would we justify the faith that indifferent Nature cares about the "good" and "likings" of only one species, or indeed of any at all? And how would we go about locating these "essences" in the merely material universe?
"Liking" is not moral. It's merely an emotional reaction, and one that the sadist and masochist can claim in full measure. The moral status of their choices is left untouched by any such assessment.
But this is surely circular. "Pleasant," i.e. "that which pleases," is also unquestionably that which one "likes," and hence, has "likeability." So no progress at all is made by succeeding in liking two such near synonyms. People like X, and people find it pleasurable. But where's the moral relevance? People like or dislike, or find pleasant or unpleasant, all sorts of things: but that still leaves us in the dark as to the moral status of what they like or find pleasant.My claim, then, is that you cannot have an experience which is pleasant which is not also in itself likeable, nor an experience which is unpleasant and which is not also in itself dislikeable.
Quite. You'll note my continued objections above.You needn't worry on that score. I had all that knocked out of me by my tutors in three years as a philosophy undergrad at Oxford. I hope I have answered your objections thus far, but if you think I haven't, by all means have another go at me.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Fri Apr 18, 2025 2:06 am But you see that things get very complicated very fast. And I didn't want to overwhelm you with negatives, so I picked my best shot with premise 1, and left the rest until later. I was not dishonouring your effort; I was trying to set a doable and clear level of response-opportunity for you, rather than cavilling at every tiny point and overwhelming you with all these things I could have added.
And I'm offering you the chance to improve that first premise. If you don't, the argument become untenable at the first post, of course. But if you fix that unwarranted suppostion, I'm fine with entertaining the next one, and the next, and so on. This is how philosophy works. This is logic. This is critique. Try not to take it personally.
It actually doesn't, in this case. For the point is not to convince you of the truth of Theism, as much as I think that's a worthy goal. The purpose is only the more modest claim that IF Theism is true, it is capable of providing rational warrant for morality; whereas secularism, even IF it were true, would never be able to do any such thing.Okay, so your argument now becomes this:Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Thu Apr 17, 2025 10:35 pm You missed my second premise: "only the Creator can possibly say what the purpose/telos (or, we might say, rightful good) is for all men." (see above) That's obviously true, too: only the one who created can say why or for what end a particular thing was created, since only His volition, and nobody else's, was involved.
Now, you're right that I owe you another premise in addition to that, but I thought it was pretty obvious: "God says that man was created to have fellowship with Him." I could have added, "The Christian God does not lie," but both of these are part of the very definition of "the Christian God," so I didn't feel the need to state them. However, here they are.
1. God created man for fellowship with Him.
2. Only the Creator can possibly say what the purpose/telos (or, we might say, rightful good) is for all men.
3. Therefore, , seeking and having fellowship with God is an unalloyed good for all men.
Clearly 1. stands in need of support, in the form of evidence and/or argument.
Therefore, it is not necessary for you to believe in Theism personally in order to see the truth of that; all you need to see is that the conclusion does, indeed, follow necessarily if the two premises are believed. And it is not necessary for me to believe in secularism in order to point out that secularism, even if we grant its premises, cannot rationally produce any conclusion entailing morality.
I have actually posted on this several places before. God does not "create" the values, in the sense that He "creates" the world or man. Rather, the values "good" and "bad," and all other moral terms, proceed from the relationship between the actions in question and the nature of God Himself. That which is consonant and harmonious with the nature and purposes of God is "good," and that which is contrary to the nature and purposes of God is "bad." The consummate good for man is fellowship with his Creator. That which produces distance in that relationship is both functionally and morally "bad" for mankind; that which conduces to harmony with the Creator is functionally beneficial and morally "good" for mankind.But in the context of the current discussion, 2. is of more interest. This seems to be in effect the same claim you have been making, i.e. that God can create values of good and evil. Now I want to ask you a question: what do you think the words 'good' and 'bad' mean?
And now, to you.