godelian wrote: ↑Wed Mar 12, 2025 1:27 am
Age wrote: ↑Tue Mar 11, 2025 10:50 pm
Obviously you can so-called 'prove' things to "your" 'self', but you certainly are NOT necessarily 'proving' those things to ANY one ELSE.
Axiom a1 and a2 lead to conclusion c1.
If c1 necessarily follows from a1 and a2 then you can prove c1 from a1 and a2.
You do not seem to understand the notion of "proof". Have you ever tried to use an automated theorem prover? I don't think so.
LOL
If something is some thing, then it can NOT be something ELSE.
So, your CLAIM that something is 'one thing' - your a1, here, then it can NOT be something else - your a2.
Therefore, your OWN conclusion - your c1 does NOT follow AT ALL, let alone necessarily follow.
So, BECAUSE your c1, here, does NOT logically, necessarily, NOR even at all, follow from your a1 and a2, you have NOT proved c1 from a1 and a2 AT ALL.
you do NOT understand 'proof', NOR even just 'logical reasoning', and 'following logically'.
Have you ever tried to just IMAGINE HOW 'one thing' could even be 'something else', entirely?
If you HAD, then you WOULD HAVE SEEN, and RECOGNIZED and NOTICED, they, BY DEFINITION, those two 'DIFFERENT things' are NOT the 'SAME thing', OBVIOUSLY.
Therefore, ANY CLAIM that 'one thing' is 'one thing' AND 'something else', at the 'exact same time', is NOT just ABSURD but IS ALSO ABSOLUTELY ILLOGICAL and NONSENSICAL, to say the least.
your USE of the 'imbecile' word, quite frequently, here, may well SAY, SHOW, and EXPLAIN MORE that I have HAD TO, here.