You never responded to this, Mike.
BigMike wrote: ↑Thu Dec 12, 2024 9:04 pm
Quarks and photons are elementary particles. By definition, they are not "made of" anything simpler within our current understanding of the Standard Model of particle physics. They are the foundational building blocks, and their properties—mass, charge, energy, and spin—are precisely measurable and experimentally verified.
Sayin' a quark is made of
quark or a photon is made of
photon is no answer. You don't know what either are made of. No one does.
And a quark has never been measured, or observed, or recorded. We
infer they exist (remember that -- we
infer they exist -- it'll come up later, in this post or one soon after).
These are facts, not "promissory materialism."
The promissory materialism is when you assert man is meat, and only meat, without any verifiable explanation of how elementary particles create mind. Sayin'
oh, that's an emergent property doesn't
explain how it works. It's just you promising the answers are coming...someday. And until they do we ought just accept it.
Your insistence that I "show my work" ignores the mountains of empirical data already accumulated by neuroscience, physics, and biology. Correlations between brain activity and emotions are demonstrated through fMRI scans, electrical studies, and neurochemical analysis. Memory and thought processes have been tied to synaptic activity and neural networks. This isn’t an "assertion"; it’s evidence-based science.
Nuthin' in the empirical evidence proves man is just meat and not a free will. How's it go?
Correlation does not imply causation?
And you, sir, haven't even bothered to actually pony up any of the empirical evidence. You assert, that's it, that's all.
Well, to be fair, you did foist up Libet's work a few times. But you misinterpreted the results. And when I challenged your misinterpretation with a link to Libet's own words on the work, you dismissed him without even reading what he had to say. You disregarded the thinking of the man whose work you hold out as an evidence.
https://static1.squarespace.com/static/ ... ill%3F.pdf
As for your soul, Henry, the burden of proof is on you. You’re the one proposing something beyond the physical—a ghostly puppeteer pulling the strings of your neurons. Where’s your evidence for this "soul" having any measurable property or causal influence? I’m not asserting the soul doesn’t exist; I’m simply asking you to meet the same evidentiary standards you demand from science.
I say man is a hylomorph (I've said this several times in this thread), not a soul in a meatcar or a phantom pulling meat strings. Start with Aristotle, move on to Aquinas, then look up mere hylomorphism and staunch hylomorphism for more. Educate yourself in the alternates before dismissing stuff you obviously know nuthin' about. Descartes's theater ain't the whole of it.
As I say: this is your thread, one of several, wherein you make claims about man's nature. None of us have an obligation to put up alternate ideas. You, though, have an obligation to support your assertions. You haven't done that yet.
But, okay, I'll throw you a bone (with the understanding you're not off the hook for backin' your claims).
Fact: severing the corpus callosum doesn't result in two minds. Despite all communication between the hemispheres ending, there is only one mind, identity, personality. If mind were solely the result of brain activity, with each hemisphere independent of the other, shouldn't there be a fragmented mind? Aside from some perceptual disfunction, the person remains the same.
What can we infer?
Fact: Hemispherectomies involve removing half the brain. If mind is solely brain product shouldn't this enormous loss of brain tissue dramatically affect personality, intelligence, memory, etc.? It doesn't.
What can we infer?
I already pointed out Wilder Penfield's work with epileptics. He found seizures, a brain-wide event, had no bearing on mind. He found and was never able to induce a seizure that affected purely mental faculties. Why? Also, while he was to, for example, stimulate the brain to cause a patient's arm to move, he was never able to fool the patient into thinkin' he had moved his own arm. The patient was always able to distinguish between what he did of his own accord and was Penfield induced. Why?
What can we infer?
There are other evidences, but let's start with these.
By the way: I can reference all of the above. I will if you'll actually read and consider. If, though, as before, you just dismiss it all out of hand, well, I won't waste my time.
determinism doesn’t require answers to every metaphysical question to function as a framework.
Of course not. But you have made claims, specific claims about man's nature, and it behoves you to back them. You haven't done that yet.