What could make morality objective?

Should you think about your duty, or about the consequences of your actions? Or should you concentrate on becoming a good person?

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Skepdick
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Skepdick »

Peter Holmes wrote: Tue Jul 02, 2024 8:20 am Point is, VA has absolutely nothing to justify the 'objectivity' of the first claim, and deny the 'objectivity' of the second claim. It's brute subjective fiat. Grotesque!
Here's your daily irony-bonus.

In which objective FSERC is the justification of claims prescribed?
Peter Holmes
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

VA maintains that I haven't countered his claim that what I call facts are illusory. So here is his post, to which he refers repeatedly. And I propose to refute his argument here.

VA

There are Two Senses of 'What is Fact'
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39587
1. FSK-ed Facts
2. Mind-independent Facts which grounded on illusions.
PH's version of fact is that of 2. thus illusory


1 This begs the question - using a conclusion as or to support a premise. Our argument is about whether reality - the facts of reality - are independent from humans. VA's 'two senses of "what is fact" claim merely states his tediously repeated conclusion, without showing why it's true, from sound premises.

2 VA glosses over the 'mind-independent' condition, by saying it can mean 'independent from the human conditions', without showing that those are the same thing. But this is by no means clear - and the complications are obvious, as is the legacy mind/matter dualism.

VA

PH insists what I claimed as objective moral facts are nonsense.
There are Objective Moral Facts
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=35002


This merely recycles VA's argument, as do most of his posts.

VA

My Caveat:
Moral statements [descriptive and prescriptive of moral-ought] related to opinions and beliefs of individual[s] and unorganized groups are not moral facts.


1 This distinction is designed to separate the 'opinions and beliefs of individual{s} and unorganised groups', which are not 'factual', from the consensus opinions and beliefs of certain organised groups, such as natural scientists, which constitute 'frameworks and systems of knowledge' - which VA refers to above as 'FSK-ed facts'. But this a kind of specialised bandwagon fallacy.

2 VA smuggles in 'moral facts' as a sleight-of-hand, which begs the question. The trick is this: the only facts are FSK-ed facts, which depend on humans, and therefore there are moral FSK-ed facts. This non sequitur is central to VA's argument for moral objectivity - the existence of moral facts.

VA

PH claims his definition of what are facts [see below] are the only real facts.
However I argue, PH's version of 'what is fact' cannot be real, PH's fact is merely an illusion, speculation, opinions and ASSUMPTIONS.


VA doesn't argue this at all - but merely states it as a conclusion from no supportive premises. We are back to the beginning of this post.

VA

Here is PH definition of what is fact.
Peter Holmes wrote: ↑Mon Feb 13, 2023 9:34 am

'To repeat, there are three separate things [re What is Facts]:
1. features of reality that are or were the case;
2. what we believe and know about them; and
3. what we say about them.'


VA's square-bracket insertion misrepresents my taxonomy, because my point is that what we call facts are
features of reality that are or were the case. But, otherwise, the above is my starting point.

VA

To simplify:
facts /
knowledge /
description.


Fair enough, as a shorthand.

VA

In this methodological taxonomy, features of reality (facts or states of affairs) have nothing to do with what we know and say.


Again, here VA gets it nearly right. The point of my methodological taxonomy is that it untangles the conceptual muddle that comes from failing to distinguish between the three 'separate things' - the muddle that I think has plagued philosophy for millennia - the very muddle that VA's sub-Kantian theory perpetuates - as follows.


VA

For example, it is a fact the moon exists regardless of whether there are human or not.
1. Fact as features of reality that are or were the case"
PH's stance of what is fact as "1. features of reality that are or were the case" and independent of the human condition, is very problematic and there are many arguments why it is not tenable nor possible to be real.

1. Kant argued convincingly a thing-in-itself is impossible to exists as real, thus it is an illusion, nevertheless a useful illusion for various purposes.


And here's the rub. Kant's invented 'thing-in-itself', or 'noumenon', is the fiction that keeps on confusing. It's the ghost that doesn't exist but can't be exorcised. And it's 'usefulness' is the point, because, since it doesn't exist, facts or features of reality can only be 'things-as-they-appear-to-us', or 'phenomena'.

Without noumena, the argument that reality - the facts of reality - depend, in some way, on us humans collapses. So VA, following Kant, has to blur the distinction between features of reality and what we know and say about them. Those separate features of reality - those things-in-themselves - must be illusions.

VA

2. QM has refuted facts and reality as independent from the human conditions.
The thesis of the 2022 Nobel Prize in Physics, had proven that an independent objective reality is not possible to be real.
The implication of that thesis is;
The Moon Does Not Exist If No Humans are "Looking" at It
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39510
which refutes PH's - what is fact which implies;
"the fact that the moon exists regardless of humans existence or relation to the human conditions"


This is completely different from VA's Kantian argument above. And others here who know more about QM than I have repeatedly challenged, if not falsified, VA's metaphysical conclusion from the physics. But I repeat a point I've already made: QM is a very successful attempt to describe the facts of reality - facts which don't depend on the existence of humans.

VA

3. Model Dependent Realism
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Model-dependent_realism
" claims that it is meaningless to talk about the "true reality" of a model as we can never be absolutely certain of anything."
which mean what the model is modelling, i.e. the supposed PH's fact is meaningless.

Therefore, PH's version of 'what is fact' cannot be real, PH's fact is merely an illusion, speculation, opinions and ASSUMPTIONS.


Here VA conflates two different issues: general (empiricist?) skepticism; and model-dependence. I've addressed both of them repeatedly, and VA ignores or doesn't understand my rebuttals. But here are my points about model-dependence again:

1 To construct a model of reality is not to construct reality. If it were, then of what is the model a model?

2 If all we can know about reality are the models we construct, then how can we construct them in the first place?

VA

2. what we believe and know about them;
How sure is PH and gang that "what we believe and know about them" represent the fact which is independent of the human conditions?
To know [humanly] the facts precisely is an impossible task and there is no way one can confirm it. In this case, there is the gap between knowing-reality [epistemology] and the reality-that-known [ontology].


Here's the wretched noumenon - reality-in-itself - haunting VA again. And the mysticism is evident: there's something unknowable about reality for ever beyond our human understanding. Only an invented god could know everything and the essence of things - because there must be an essence.

VA

I presumed PH will rely on the best, most credible and reliable method to know that-independent-fact which is the scientific Framework and System of Knowledge [FSK].
There is no denial that the scientific FSK generate its own scientific facts which is objective.
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/scie ... jectivity/

So how sure is PH that what are scientific facts represent the supposed fact-in-itself as a feature of reality and is independent of human conditions.
I believe PH will have confidence scientific facts do are of close approximation of his "independent facts" which definitely imply Correspondence or Mirroring even PH deny he is doing the mirroring.


To repeat: VA's FSK theory can't account for the relative or superior objectivity of any FSK. The obvious answer - that the natural sciences most accurately describe an independent reality, of which we're a part - is precisely the answer that the FSK theory rejects. Why is one model better than another? Because there's something that's being modelled. QED.

VA

In this case we have two types of facts, i.e.;
1. PH's fact as feature of reality independent of the human conditions.
2. Scientific facts which are conditioned to the FSK conditioned by human conditions.

There are Two Senses of 'What is Fact'
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39587

What I conclude here is;
PH do not know his version of fact directly because his facts in independent of him, what he knows of are merely whatever are pulsing from his brain.
These pulsations of from the brain are concluded as scientific facts conditioned upon the scientific FSK.

The pulsations in relation to reality, i.e. scientific facts in this case are the real whole complex of things emerging from reality [all there is] with the human conditions.
Scientific facts are not mere inferences nor description.

It is something like Weltanschauung but in term of realization of reality;
A worldview or world-view or Weltanschauung is the fundamental cognitive orientation of an individual or society encompassing the whole of the individual's or society's knowledge, culture, and point of view.

As such there are two aspect to what is a fact, in this case a scientific fact;
1. the culminating emergence of the fact with the scientific FSK..
2. the conclusions that can be described about 1.

3. what we say about them.
What PH say about are the consolidations of the scientific facts, not his supposed facts because they do not exist as real.
PH's version of 'what is fact' cannot be real, PH's fact is merely an illusion, speculation, opinions and ASSUMPTIONS.


Twere tedious to repeat refutations of this stuff.

And anyway, I and others have rebutted VA's interminable drivel interminably, without success.

Back to the novel.
Iwannaplato
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Iwannaplato »

Peter Holmes wrote: Wed Jul 03, 2024 10:31 am And anyway, I and others have rebutted VA's interminable drivel interminably, without success.
What are the criteria for this 'success' that we have gone without?
Should they perhaps be changed?
How might this affect behavior?
Peter Holmes
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Iwannaplato wrote: Wed Jul 03, 2024 10:43 am
Peter Holmes wrote: Wed Jul 03, 2024 10:31 am And anyway, I and others have rebutted VA's interminable drivel interminably, without success.
What are the criteria for this 'success' that we have gone without?
Should they perhaps be changed?
How might this affect behavior?
Erm. I suppose we're here to argue with and try to persuade each other. And I suppose we think this is something worth doing. Do you disagree?
Iwannaplato
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Iwannaplato »

Peter Holmes wrote: Wed Jul 03, 2024 10:52 am
Iwannaplato wrote: Wed Jul 03, 2024 10:43 am
Peter Holmes wrote: Wed Jul 03, 2024 10:31 am And anyway, I and others have rebutted VA's interminable drivel interminably, without success.
What are the criteria for this 'success' that we have gone without?
Should they perhaps be changed?
How might this affect behavior?
Erm. I suppose we're here to argue with and try to persuade each other. And I suppose we think this is something worth doing. Do you disagree?
Not entirely. But if the measure of success is convincing VA to change his mind on one of his core beliefs, or even a not trivial part of an argument of his, then you may well find yourself ten years from now considering a few thousand posts an utter failure.
That criterion is a negative misleading indicator or a misaligned metric, or a type 2 error (false negative) or (this one sounds the worst) a perverse incentive - These are incentives that have unintended and undesirable results. If the criteria chosen to evaluate performance inadvertently incentivize the wrong behavior or outcomes, they can lead to misrepresentation of the actual achievements.

Pardon the digression but I got curious how this kind of thing might be labelled in different fields.

Success could be measured through the quality and clarity of your responses and arguments - known perhaps through feedback from third parties - perhaps improvements in conciseness also.
or
if the process of communicating with VA helps you clarify your own position or find weaknesses and fix them
or
through changes in your opinions, perhaps around core issues, perhaps through your own mulling rather than, say, via VA's well formed arguments.
or
an increased ability, on your part, in seeing what kinds of wrong steps VA is taking in his arguments and other posting habits.
or
finding you enjoy the process more than you once did
or
you find you have now considered a wider range of possible truths and outlooks.

In a sense what you said was hinging success on VA changing his mind which is trying to get external validation where it may not be even possible to get it.
Peter Holmes
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Iwannaplato wrote: Wed Jul 03, 2024 11:13 am
Peter Holmes wrote: Wed Jul 03, 2024 10:52 am
Iwannaplato wrote: Wed Jul 03, 2024 10:43 am
What are the criteria for this 'success' that we have gone without?
Should they perhaps be changed?
How might this affect behavior?
Erm. I suppose we're here to argue with and try to persuade each other. And I suppose we think this is something worth doing. Do you disagree?
Not entirely. But if the measure of success is convincing VA to change his mind on one of his core beliefs, or even a not trivial part of an argument of his, then you may well find yourself ten years from now considering a few thousand posts an utter failure.
That criterion is a negative misleading indicator or a misaligned metric, or a type 2 error (false negative) or (this one sounds the worst) a perverse incentive - These are incentives that have unintended and undesirable results. If the criteria chosen to evaluate performance inadvertently incentivize the wrong behavior or outcomes, they can lead to misrepresentation of the actual achievements.

Pardon the digression but I got curious how this kind of thing might be labelled in different fields.

Success could be measured through the quality and clarity of your responses and arguments - known perhaps through feedback from third parties - perhaps improvements in conciseness also.
or
if the process of communicating with VA helps you clarify your own position or find weaknesses and fix them
or
through changes in your opinions, perhaps around core issues, perhaps through your own mulling rather than, say, via VA's well formed arguments.
or
an increased ability, on your part, in seeing what kinds of wrong steps VA is taking in his arguments and other posting habits.
or
finding you enjoy the process more than you once did
or
you find you have now considered a wider range of possible truths and outlooks.

In a sense what you said was hinging success on VA changing his mind which is trying to get external validation where it may not be even possible to get it.
Okay, thanks. I'd guess some mixture of all the motives you mention comes into why any of us engages in places like this. I'm sure part of my interest is in assessing and trying to improve my arguments and expressions - which involves learning from others. For one example, I was shown the mistake of moral objectivism by one contributor to another forum, who had the patience to explain it.
Iwannaplato
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Iwannaplato »

Peter Holmes wrote: Wed Jul 03, 2024 1:23 pm Okay, thanks. I'd guess some mixture of all the motives you mention comes into why any of us engages in places like this. I'm sure part of my interest is in assessing and trying to improve my arguments and expressions - which involves learning from others. For one example, I was shown the mistake of moral objectivism by one contributor to another forum, who had the patience to explain it.
You represented a part of myself, when I first responded to you on this. Whatever my official position, it has certainly felt like not succeeding when certain posters did not acknowledge X or Y. So, I allowed my other parts to respond to you with their criticism of this view. This all is not fully resolved in me, but I appreciated to opportunity to have a short conversation with myself through you, rather than just a non-verbal tension in myself. I think the more I can heighten the priority of the other criteria for success, the healthier I am.
Peter Holmes
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Iwannaplato wrote: Wed Jul 03, 2024 1:49 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: Wed Jul 03, 2024 1:23 pm Okay, thanks. I'd guess some mixture of all the motives you mention comes into why any of us engages in places like this. I'm sure part of my interest is in assessing and trying to improve my arguments and expressions - which involves learning from others. For one example, I was shown the mistake of moral objectivism by one contributor to another forum, who had the patience to explain it.
You represented a part of myself, when I first responded to you on this. Whatever my official position, it has certainly felt like not succeeding when certain posters did not acknowledge X or Y. So, I allowed my other parts to respond to you with their criticism of this view. This all is not fully resolved in me, but I appreciated to opportunity to have a short conversation with myself through you, rather than just a non-verbal tension in myself. I think the more I can heighten the priority of the other criteria for success, the healthier I am.
Maybe having 'criteria for success' - other than the satisfaction of having nailed a point clearly and simply - is a problem. I say this because I've worked with a group called Plain English Campaign for many years, and their emphasis on simplicity, brevity and clarity has transformed my approach to writing. Hence my need to clarify and simplify other people's arguments, in order to address them properly. And most philosophers sure do need 'plaining'.
Atla
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Atla »

Iwannaplato wrote: Wed Jul 03, 2024 10:43 am What are the criteria for this 'success' that we have gone without?
Imo, either make the lightbulb go off in VA's head, or have VA show that I'm / we are indeed wrong. Neither has ever happened as to my knowledge.
Iwannaplato
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Iwannaplato »

Atla wrote: Wed Jul 03, 2024 4:28 pm
Iwannaplato wrote: Wed Jul 03, 2024 10:43 am What are the criteria for this 'success' that we have gone without?
Imo, either make the lightbulb go off in VA's head, or have VA show that I'm / we are indeed wrong. Neither has ever happened as to my knowledge.
That's more flexible as long as it isn't hinged on VA - or whomever - admitting he (or she) hasn't shown that you're wrong. :D

I think one can see sometimes that a lightbulb went off even if the other person doesn't acknowledge it. They quietly change a line of argument soon after a flaw is pointed out, for example. No concession that there was a problem, but still...a quiet concession.
Peter Holmes
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

The expression 'thing-in-itself' is meaningless. But let's pretend it isn't. Here are some valid arguments.

1

P1 If there can't be things-in-themselves, then the claim that humans can't know things-in-themselves is fatuous.
P2 There can't be things-in-themselves.
C Therefore, the claim that humans can't know things-in-themselves is fatuous.

2

P1 If there are no things-in-themselves, then there is no reason to say there are only things-as-they-appear-to-us.
P2 There are no things-in-themselves.
C Therefore, there is no reason to say there are only things-as-they-appear-to-us.

3

P1 If there are no things-in-themselves, then there can be only things-as-they-appear-to-rabbits.
P2 There are no things-in-themselves.
C Therefore, there can be only things-as-they-appear-to-rabbits.

I think 1 and 2 are sound. Does anyone challenge the soundness of 3 - and on what grounds?
Peter Holmes
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

The sooner we get rid of 'things-in-themselves', the better off we'll all be. So I'll try again.

Calling VA: stop rehashing your stupid 'PH's facts are illusory' shite, and try having a genuinely critical think about the following - because these arguments demolish all the Kantian crap about noumena.
Peter Holmes wrote: Thu Jul 04, 2024 3:50 pm The expression 'thing-in-itself' is meaningless. But let's pretend it isn't. Here are some valid arguments.

1
P1 If there can't be things-in-themselves, then the claim that humans can't know things-in-themselves is fatuous.
P2 There can't be things-in-themselves.
C Therefore, the claim that humans can't know things-in-themselves is fatuous.

2
P1 If there are no things-in-themselves, then there is no reason to say there are only things-as-they-appear-to-us.
P2 There are no things-in-themselves.
C Therefore, there is no reason to say there are only things-as-they-appear-to-us.

3
P1 If there are no things-in-themselves, then there can be only things-as-they-appear-to-rabbits.
P2 There are no things-in-themselves.
C Therefore, there can be only things-as-they-appear-to-rabbits.

I think 1 and 2 are sound. Does anyone challenge the soundness of 3 - and on what grounds?
Go on. Be a philosopher and actually think.
Peter Holmes
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Kant: 'Two things awe me most, the starry sky above me and the moral law within me.'

Those are not the words of a philosophical anti-realist. But Kant's invention of noumena - things-in-themselves - was a disastrous mistake, with catastrophic consequences for philosophy ever since. And VA's intellectual derangement is just one example of the damage done.
Veritas Aequitas
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Peter Holmes wrote: Fri Jul 05, 2024 7:34 am The sooner we get rid of 'things-in-themselves', the better off we'll all be. So I'll try again.

Calling VA: stop rehashing your stupid 'PH's facts are illusory' shite, and try having a genuinely critical think about the following - because these arguments demolish all the Kantian crap about noumena.
Peter Holmes wrote: Thu Jul 04, 2024 3:50 pm The expression 'thing-in-itself' is meaningless. But let's pretend it isn't. Here are some valid arguments.

1
P1 If there can't be things-in-themselves, then the claim that humans can't know things-in-themselves is fatuous.
P2 There can't be things-in-themselves.
C Therefore, the claim that humans can't know things-in-themselves is fatuous.

2
P1 If there are no things-in-themselves, then there is no reason to say there are only things-as-they-appear-to-us.
P2 There are no things-in-themselves.
C Therefore, there is no reason to say there are only things-as-they-appear-to-us.

3
P1 If there are no things-in-themselves, then there can be only things-as-they-appear-to-rabbits.
P2 There are no things-in-themselves.
C Therefore, there can be only things-as-they-appear-to-rabbits.

I think 1 and 2 are sound. Does anyone challenge the soundness of 3 - and on what grounds?
Go on. Be a philosopher and actually think.
I have responded to the above here:
Two Senses of Reality
viewtopic.php?p=719287#p719287

Do you have a counter for the above?
Veritas Aequitas
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Peter Holmes wrote: Fri Jul 05, 2024 7:53 am Kant: 'Two things awe me most, the starry sky above me and the moral law within me.'

Those are not the words of a philosophical anti-realist. But Kant's invention of noumena - things-in-themselves - was a disastrous mistake, with catastrophic consequences for philosophy ever since. And VA's intellectual derangement is just one example of the damage done.
You are ignorant with the above.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Philosophical_realism
Philosophical realism – is the view that a certain kind of thing (ranging widely from abstract objects like numbers to moral statements to the physical world itself) has mind-independent existence, i.e. that it exists even in the absence of any mind perceiving it or that its existence is not just a mere appearance in the eye of the beholder.

Realists [philosophical] tend to believe that whatever we believe now is only an approximation of reality but that the accuracy and fullness of understanding can be improved.[10] In some contexts, realism is contrasted with idealism.
Today it [philosophical realism] is more often contrasted with anti-realism, for example in the philosophy of science.[11][12]
Kant: 'Two things awe me most, the starry sky above me and the moral law within me.'
The "within me" cannot fit in with philosophical realism's mind independent existence, so it cannot be realist.
So Kant's ".. the moral law within me" has to be antirealist.

I have argued, your fact, i.e. a feature of reality that is the case, state of affairs that is absolutely independent of the human subject's opinion, beliefs and judgment is literally the thing-in-itself that exists regardless of whether there are humans or not.
Your fact is thus a fact-in-itself, i.e. it has no relation to humans whatsoever
How can you deny that?
Show me your argument why it is not so?

PH's (et. al.) Thing [fact] is a Thing-in-Itself
viewtopic.php?t=42433
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