Is morality objective or subjective?

Should you think about your duty, or about the consequences of your actions? Or should you concentrate on becoming a good person?

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Peter Holmes
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

FlashDangerpants wrote: Sat Sep 23, 2023 1:28 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: Sat Sep 23, 2023 1:01 pm Premise: In English, the term 'murder' is strongly associated with moral wrongfulness.
Conclusion: Therefore, (it's a fact that) murder is morally wrong.

Now, for 'murder' substitute 'homosexuality', 'abortion', 'capital punishment', 'eating animals', or any other morally contentious issue. In each case, is legality relevant? And if so, does that redeem the non-sequitur?
I would like to draw your attention to some relevant factoids.

1. I'm talking in Wittgensteinian terms about what can meaningfully be doubted, stop trying to foist legalism onto me. I already made that point when I said that it makes no more sense to prove that murder is bad than it does to prove that what lies below is 'downwards' from that which is up. Any competent user of language knows that the direction to take to get from above to below is down because that shit is built into the concepts. Wrongness is similarly built into the concept of murder.

If you are describing something as murder you cannot assert that it was right in the same way that if you are saying X is below Y then you would not talk of moving "up from Y to X". You've read Wittgenstein, you should know how this works.

2. I didn't offer it as a resolution to a controversy about whether murder is wrong (or rape), it is the explanation for why there is no controversy over whether those things are wrong. In some other society where murder or rape were not wrong, those guys wouldn't have any exact translation for our concepts of murder and rape, the concepts would be alien to them. They would ask you what you meant by this special word that means a "forbidden stabbing" and they would look at you funny when you tried to explain.

3. I only extended my description as far as rape and murder for a reason. You might even note that normally you are accused by IC and Henry of not being able to say three things are wrong: rape, murder, and slavery. The third of those is more interesting in this context because it hasn't always been freighted with the conceptual luggage of wrongness. It has instead become a word of that sort. In a better forum I would work that point a lot harder, but here, I can't see it panning out.

4. Please try to remember from time to time that I am at least as good a moral antirealist as you are. If you are interpreting any argument I present in moral realist terms, you have probably misinterpreted me.
Sorry, but I was trying to back up your argument, rather than oppose it. My apologies. I find your moral antirealism - if that's the right term - very persuasive.

I hear what you're saying about moral language games. I suppose what I'm getting at is that talk about language - which is all that talk about concepts amounts to - is separate and different from the reality outside language, which is neither linguistic nor conceptual.

So the word 'murder' may well be universally freighted with 'moral wrongness' - but that doesn't make it a fact that murder is morally wrong. It just means it's a fact that we think murder is morally wrong, just as we used to think slavery is not morally wrong.
Atla
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Atla »

FlashDangerpants wrote: Sat Sep 23, 2023 12:56 pm I don't suppose it matters much to me either way. Given that the question in this sub is always framed as "PH can't say murder is wrong", if we end up with competing meanings for murder:
  • The one which entails wrongness leaves no opportunity to even doubt that murder is wrong as the wrongness is pre-supposed by the concept. (My origianl and still correct argument)
  • The one that somehow seperates wrongness from murderiness is relative to circumstance and explicitly allows for not wrong murders. It would be equally inane to offer a proof that this one is wrong because it is now analytic that murder itself isn't the wrong thing and some external consideration of justification now determines that aspect.
The adjustment my argument requires to account for this is trivial, even if I do consider it a bit of a nonsense.
Yeah it doesn't change the argument, just the wording. Wouldn't even call them competing meanings, looks like there are simply 2 different meanings in use (especially when it comes to philosophy).

Bit like the word "forgiveness" which has two meanings, so people keep misunderstanding each other.
Atla
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Atla »

5k comments, I never thought I'd write this many. :)
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FlashDangerpants
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by FlashDangerpants »

Peter Holmes wrote: Sat Sep 23, 2023 2:09 pm Sorry, but I was trying to back up your argument, rather than oppose it. My apologies. I find your moral antirealism - if that's the right term - very persuasive.

I hear what you're saying about moral language games. I suppose what I'm getting at is that talk about language - which is all that talk about concepts amounts to - is separate and different from the reality outside language, which is neither linguistic nor conceptual.

So the word 'murder' may well be universally freighted with 'moral wrongness' - but that doesn't make it a fact that murder is morally wrong. It just means it's a fact that we think murder is morally wrong, just as we used to think slavery is not morally wrong.
Ah, my bad then. The problem is that with this approach we are expecting long-form thinking from people who prefer a more abbreviated pattern. When challenged to "prove that murder is wrong", or for that matter when somebody offers as a virtue of their argument that it alone can prove that murder is wrong, a short explanation may be more useful than one that requires trhem to make any form of leap.

My recommended formulation would be: Proving that murder is wrong is like proving that water is wet, the word itself contains that inference before you start, and the task is impossible because it is meaningless. I know that's still possibly too long though.

By extension, although I formulated that as a counter to a supposed criticism Henry likes to lay at your feet, I am also down with that other point. If somebody wants to present a useful positive moral theory by proving a tautology such as murder being wrong, they would need to break that tautological aspect to make it demonstrable. So while I am not ruling that out as impossible*, I would suggest that addressing an actual contentious question such as capital punishment or lovely, juicy, but evil steaks would be more useful for most cases.



* My position above is arguably grounded on folk morality, dump that for morality-proper and you are free to proceed with whatever definitions you wish to concoct, at the cost of now being outside normal moral discourse.
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FlashDangerpants
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by FlashDangerpants »

Atla wrote: Sat Sep 23, 2023 2:30 pm 5k comments, I never thought I'd write this many. :)
5K club rulkes!

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Veritas Aequitas
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Peter Holmes wrote: Sat Sep 23, 2023 1:01 pm Premise: In English, the term 'murder' is strongly associated with moral wrongfulness.
Conclusion: Therefore, (it's a fact that) murder is morally wrong.

Now, for 'murder' substitute 'homosexuality', 'abortion', 'capital punishment', 'eating animals', or any other morally contentious issue. In each case, is legality relevant? And if so, does that redeem the non-sequitur?
I don't rely on rightness or wrongness in relation to morality.
I'll go along with your post subject to the above.

Your argument is deceptive.
Yes, "murder' is strongly associated with moral wrongfulness" but there is a conflation of concepts in this statement which need to be specified and separated;

"Murder" is related specifically to the political and legal FSK which independent from morality.

What concerns morality in the above is the 'killing of humans by humans'.

As such the 'Conclusion' should be
Therefore, (it's a fact that) 'killing of humans by humans' is morally wrong.

But your statement above is not realistic and tenable, thus false because your 'what is fact' based on mind or perception independence [philosophical realism] is illusory.

PH's What is Fact is Illusory
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39577
Why Philosophical Realism is Illusory
viewtopic.php?t=40167
PH's Philosophical Realism is Illusory
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39992

When people claim 'the killing of humans by humans' is morally wrong, there is an implied fact* because they are grounding their statements on some sort of moral FSK of various range of objectivity.

What is fact is conditioned upon a human-based FSK, thus objective.
What is a Fact?
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=29486

So,
There are Objective Moral Facts
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=35002

Therefore Morality is Objective [in contrast to scientific objectivity]
Scientific Objectivity
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39286
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Immanuel Can
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Immanuel Can »

Peter Holmes wrote: Sat Sep 23, 2023 1:01 pm Premise: In English, the term 'murder' is strongly associated with moral wrongfulness.
Conclusion: Therefore, (it's a fact that) murder is morally wrong.

Now, for 'murder' substitute 'homosexuality', 'abortion', 'capital punishment', 'eating animals', or any other morally contentious issue. In each case, is legality relevant? And if so, does that redeem the non-sequitur?
That's not even the worst of it.

First, it's not even a correct sylllogism. It's what's called an "enthymeme," meaning, an attempted argument in which there is a suppressed premise. What it would lack is the middle premise necessary to tie the premise 1 idea to the conclusion.

But we can tell, now, exactly what it would have to be. It would have to read,

Premise 2: "That which is strongly associated with moral wrongfulness in English IS morally wrong."

However, since the terms "strongly associated" doesn't give us any information about who's doing the "associating," or what the "association" consists in, or what qualifies the judgment that it's "strong," or why it is incumbent upon us to agree with "strong associations" involving unnamed others, no matter how things have "been". And how did "English" get to be the moral arbitrator of all cases? :shock:

We certainly have zero reason to accept that supposition unchallenged. It really begs to be doubted, in its current wording, for sure. It really says nothing specific at all.

Moreover, it's not at all clear, as you point out, Peter, that the fact that some unnamed persons "associate" something with something else, that that is what makes a thing "moral." And as you rightly also point out, countercases are too easy to produce:

In history, making women less than men in value has "been strongly associated" with normal values.
Therefore, making women less than men in value is moral. :shock:

Or, smoking has "been strongly associated" with being cool.
Therefore, smoking is moral. :shock:


So that's one really bad argument. In both form and content, it's not remotely compelling.
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FlashDangerpants
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by FlashDangerpants »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sun Sep 24, 2023 4:52 am Your argument is deceptive.
Yes, "murder' is strongly associated with moral wrongfulness" but there is a conflation of concepts in this statement which need to be specified and separated;

"Murder" is related specifically to the political and legal FSK which independent from morality.

What concerns morality in the above is the 'killing of humans by humans'.
Well fuck me sideways with a bargepole, the blind squirrel finally found a nut. Up to a point anyway.

Murder isn't some legal term of art, it is a normal word, so we don't need to invoke some additional FSK thing. Murder is a morally loaded term in any sentence where the word gets used to describe any killing, because it contains the wrongness of the act. So if you remove the pre-judged wrongfulness, you are describing a killing not a murder. The killing could be wrongful (in which case it is a murder) or it could be justified (a defensive act, or a necessary intervantion in a hostage situation etc...) and if so it is not a murder.

So it is true that it is meaningless to try and prove that murder is wrong, or to ask God if murder is wrong, or to doubt whether murder is wrong, or to boast that my special moral theory is the one that explains why murder is wrong.

In all these cases, what you are actually looking for is how to justify killings you approve of while condemning those you don't approve of, so the can was simply kicked down the road because after 'proving' that murder is wrong, you have done nothing at all to tell anyone which killings are murders.
Peter Holmes
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

FlashDangerpants wrote: Sun Sep 24, 2023 1:07 pm
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sun Sep 24, 2023 4:52 am Your argument is deceptive.
Yes, "murder' is strongly associated with moral wrongfulness" but there is a conflation of concepts in this statement which need to be specified and separated;

"Murder" is related specifically to the political and legal FSK which independent from morality.

What concerns morality in the above is the 'killing of humans by humans'.
Well fuck me sideways with a bargepole, the blind squirrel finally found a nut. Up to a point anyway.

Murder isn't some legal term of art, it is a normal word, so we don't need to invoke some additional FSK thing. Murder is a morally loaded term in any sentence where the word gets used to describe any killing, because it contains the wrongness of the act. So if you remove the pre-judged wrongfulness, you are describing a killing not a murder. The killing could be wrongful (in which case it is a murder) or it could be justified (a defensive act, or a necessary intervantion in a hostage situation etc...) and if so it is not a murder.

So it is true that it is meaningless to try and prove that murder is wrong, or to ask God if murder is wrong, or to doubt whether murder is wrong, or to boast that my special moral theory is the one that explains why murder is wrong.

In all these cases, what you are actually looking for is how to justify killings you approve of while condemning those you don't approve of, so the can was simply kicked down the road because after 'proving' that murder is wrong, you have done nothing at all to tell anyone which killings are murders.
What Flash says. And. Anyway. Why is it 'evil' for humans to kill humans - given that 'morality-proper' has nothing to do with the moral rightness or wrongness of behaviour - which is a matter of opinion?
Skepdick
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Skepdick »

Peter Holmes wrote: Sun Sep 24, 2023 5:09 pm What Flash says. And. Anyway. Why is it 'evil' for humans to kill humans - given that 'morality-proper' has nothing to do with the moral rightness or wrongness of behaviour - which is a matter of opinion?
Is this true; or are you lying?

There's no shame in admitting that you aren't telling the truth. Nothing wrong with lying (according to you).
Peter Holmes
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

It's true that VA says morality-proper has nothing to do with the rightness or wrongness of behaviour, but rather with opposing evil and promoting good. (As it happens, this is incoherent nonsense.)

Only declaratives can have truth-value. Like imperatives and exclamatives, interrogatives don't. Grammar 101.
Skepdick
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Skepdick »

Peter Holmes wrote: Sun Sep 24, 2023 6:09 pm Only declaratives can have truth-value. Like imperatives and exclamatives, interrogatives don't. Grammar 101.
Bullshit. There's more to language than grammar. There's also semantics.

"Close the door!" communicates that there is an open door.
"The murderer has been sentenced to 25 years in prison." communicates that that a wrongful killing has factually place.

How could an immoral act even take place if morality is subjective? What took place exactly?

Stop lying, Peter "Dumb Cunt" Holmes. It's immoral.
Veritas Aequitas
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

FlashDangerpants wrote: Sun Sep 24, 2023 1:07 pm
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sun Sep 24, 2023 4:52 am Your argument is deceptive.
Yes, "murder' is strongly associated with moral wrongfulness" but there is a conflation of concepts in this statement which need to be specified and separated;

"Murder" is related specifically to the political and legal FSK which independent from morality.

What concerns morality in the above is the 'killing of humans by humans'.
Well fuck me sideways with a bargepole, the blind squirrel finally found a nut. Up to a point anyway.

Murder isn't some legal term of art, it is a normal word, so we don't need to invoke some additional FSK thing. Murder is a morally loaded term in any sentence where the word gets used to describe any killing, because it contains the wrongness of the act. So if you remove the pre-judged wrongfulness, you are describing a killing not a murder. The killing could be wrongful (in which case it is a murder) or it could be justified (a defensive act, or a necessary intervantion in a hostage situation etc...) and if so it is not a murder.

So it is true that it is meaningless to try and prove that murder is wrong, or to ask God if murder is wrong, or to doubt whether murder is wrong, or to boast that my special moral theory is the one that explains why murder is wrong.

In all these cases, what you are actually looking for is how to justify killings you approve of while condemning those you don't approve of, so the can was simply kicked down the road because after 'proving' that murder is wrong, you have done nothing at all to tell anyone which killings are murders.
You are too arrogant but actually ignorant in this case.
From all the dictionaries and wiki I have checked, they give the same meaning, i.e.
  • Murder: the unlawful premeditated killing of one human being by another.
As such, the meaning of 'murder' is more specific when qualified to a political and legal FSK which has their own definition of what is considered 'murder' when a human is killed.

Within morality-proper the critical element is 'no human ought to be killed' absolutely. There is no question of whether it is right or wrong.
Veritas Aequitas
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Peter Holmes wrote: Sun Sep 24, 2023 5:09 pm
FlashDangerpants wrote: Sun Sep 24, 2023 1:07 pm
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sun Sep 24, 2023 4:52 am Your argument is deceptive.
Yes, "murder' is strongly associated with moral wrongfulness" but there is a conflation of concepts in this statement which need to be specified and separated;

"Murder" is related specifically to the political and legal FSK which independent from morality.

What concerns morality in the above is the 'killing of humans by humans'.
Well fuck me sideways with a bargepole, the blind squirrel finally found a nut. Up to a point anyway.

Murder isn't some legal term of art, it is a normal word, so we don't need to invoke some additional FSK thing. Murder is a morally loaded term in any sentence where the word gets used to describe any killing, because it contains the wrongness of the act. So if you remove the pre-judged wrongfulness, you are describing a killing not a murder. The killing could be wrongful (in which case it is a murder) or it could be justified (a defensive act, or a necessary intervantion in a hostage situation etc...) and if so it is not a murder.

So it is true that it is meaningless to try and prove that murder is wrong, or to ask God if murder is wrong, or to doubt whether murder is wrong, or to boast that my special moral theory is the one that explains why murder is wrong.

In all these cases, what you are actually looking for is how to justify killings you approve of while condemning those you don't approve of, so the can was simply kicked down the road because after 'proving' that murder is wrong, you have done nothing at all to tell anyone which killings are murders.
What Flash says. And. Anyway. Why is it 'evil' for humans to kill humans - given that 'morality-proper' has nothing to do with the moral rightness or wrongness of behaviour - which is a matter of opinion?
As I had stated, your thinking driven by an evolutionary default [primitive] and ideologized as philosophical realism is very narrow, shallow and dogmatic due to negative psychological impulses.

Morality-proper vision is to develop as fully as possible the natural inherent moral function within ALL humans on the individual level such that they are moral beings who spontaneously do not kill humans due to their efficient management of the inherent impulse to kill. [A]
In this case, it is critical to recognize the existence of objective moral facts to be developed.

Take the majority of humans [you personally for example -presumed not a malignant psychopath] at present, they do not deliberate most of the time whether murder is right or wrong, they naturally and spontaneously do not go about killing other humans because their moral sense are reasonable developed but not highly developed.
This is why the majority and probably you can easily be brainwashed, triggered to kill another human or agree humans can be killed under certain circumstances.

Re morality-proper vision in A above, the objective is to achieve critical mass of humans with more higher developed moral sense.
In such a state, humanity will focus on the root level to develop a higher moral sense in all; at the same time it will also focus on the root cause of evil and prevent it from rising at the root level. In this case, there is no need for right or wrong consideration in moral elements.

I defined 'evil' as any act or thought is net-negative to the well-being and flourishing of the individual and therefrom to humanity.
Peter Holmes
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Mon Sep 25, 2023 5:55 am
Peter Holmes wrote: Sun Sep 24, 2023 5:09 pm
FlashDangerpants wrote: Sun Sep 24, 2023 1:07 pm
Well fuck me sideways with a bargepole, the blind squirrel finally found a nut. Up to a point anyway.

Murder isn't some legal term of art, it is a normal word, so we don't need to invoke some additional FSK thing. Murder is a morally loaded term in any sentence where the word gets used to describe any killing, because it contains the wrongness of the act. So if you remove the pre-judged wrongfulness, you are describing a killing not a murder. The killing could be wrongful (in which case it is a murder) or it could be justified (a defensive act, or a necessary intervantion in a hostage situation etc...) and if so it is not a murder.

So it is true that it is meaningless to try and prove that murder is wrong, or to ask God if murder is wrong, or to doubt whether murder is wrong, or to boast that my special moral theory is the one that explains why murder is wrong.

In all these cases, what you are actually looking for is how to justify killings you approve of while condemning those you don't approve of, so the can was simply kicked down the road because after 'proving' that murder is wrong, you have done nothing at all to tell anyone which killings are murders.
What Flash says. And. Anyway. Why is it 'evil' for humans to kill humans - given that 'morality-proper' has nothing to do with the moral rightness or wrongness of behaviour - which is a matter of opinion?
As I had stated, your thinking driven by an evolutionary default [primitive] and ideologized as philosophical realism is very narrow, shallow and dogmatic due to negative psychological impulses.

Morality-proper vision is to develop as fully as possible the natural inherent moral function within ALL humans on the individual level such that they are moral beings who spontaneously do not kill humans due to their efficient management of the inherent impulse to kill. [A]
In this case, it is critical to recognize the existence of objective moral facts to be developed.

Take the majority of humans [you personally for example -presumed not a malignant psychopath] at present, they do not deliberate most of the time whether murder is right or wrong, they naturally and spontaneously do not go about killing other humans because their moral sense are reasonable developed but not highly developed.
This is why the majority and probably you can easily be brainwashed, triggered to kill another human or agree humans can be killed under certain circumstances.

Re morality-proper vision in A above, the objective is to achieve critical mass of humans with more higher developed moral sense.
In such a state, humanity will focus on the root level to develop a higher moral sense in all; at the same time it will also focus on the root cause of evil and prevent it from rising at the root level. In this case, there is no need for right or wrong consideration in moral elements.

I defined 'evil' as any act or thought is net-negative to the well-being and flourishing of the individual and therefrom to humanity.
That we should promote the well-being and flourishing of the individual and therefore humanity is a matter of opinion, which is subjective.

As I've been saying all along, there is subjectivism at the start and heart of your moral 'theory'. It's just that you refuse to recognise it.
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