No way! So what things are you pointing out then?
Is morality objective or subjective?
Re: Is morality objective or subjective?
Re: Is morality objective or subjective?
Things as in plural?
Things that aren’t pre-categorized but there’s more than one category of them?
Yeah. That makes sense.
Re: Is morality objective or subjective?
Re: Is morality objective or subjective?
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Veritas Aequitas
- Posts: 15722
- Joined: Wed Jul 11, 2012 4:41 am
Re: Is morality objective or subjective?
'which is subject interacted' is confusing.Peter Holmes wrote: ↑Tue Sep 05, 2023 12:53 pmAnd this remains gibberish, how ever many times you repeat it. 'A thing has to emerge to be realised as real within a framework and system of reality-framework and system of knowledge, which is subject interacted, before it can be perceived, known and described.' Why?Veritas Aequitas wrote: ↑Tue Sep 05, 2023 9:16 amI agree, our perception, knowledge and description of a thing doesn't bring it into existence like say an apple or table out there.Peter Holmes wrote: ↑Tue Sep 05, 2023 8:24 am
Sic.
'Whatever is believed to be is correlated with its being'. This is gibberish.
But perhaps the penny is edging - glacially slowly - towards the drop.
We have to perceive, know and describe things in human ways. But our perception, knowledge and description of a thing doesn't bring it into existence or, as you agree, change it.
Perceiving, Knowing & Describing a Thing Does not bring it into Existence
viewtopic.php?t=40715
BUT
But before any real thing is perceived, known and described it has to emerge to be realized as real within a FSR_FSK which is subject interacted, thus cannot be absolutely human independent or 'mind-independent'.
Thus, there a prior emergence and realization process to be accounted for.
What I meant is things and reality emerged and are realized spontaneously grounded on a 13.5 billion years of physical history and 4.5 billion years of organic history. I believe this is that '500-pound-gorilla in the room' to you.
There is no pre-existing thing to be "interacted".
Did you read this where I explain the processes of emergence and realization
Emergence & Realization
viewtopic.php?t=40721
If your focus is not on language, then your focus is on reality and things that exist absolutely independent of the human conditions, i.e. mind-independent which is Philosophical Realism.As for the stuff about analytic philosophy - mistaking what we say for what we think is as confusing as mistaking what we say for the reality outside language. There was a wrong-turn to language, in my opinion, beginning with Frege and the Tractatus.
There was indeed a Linguistic Turn [Rorty] where the whole meaning of reality and things is based on how language is used.
So far, you have not been specific on what grounds are your philosophical stances based on?The Linguistic Turn was a major development in Western philosophy during the early 20th century, the most important characteristic of which is the focusing of philosophy primarily on the relations between language, language users, and the world.[1]
Very different intellectual movements were associated with the "linguistic turn", although the term itself is commonly thought to have been popularised by Richard Rorty's 1967 anthology The Linguistic Turn, in which he discusses the turn towards linguistic philosophy.
According to Rorty, who later dissociated himself from linguistic philosophy and analytic philosophy generally, the phrase "the linguistic turn" originated with philosopher Gustav Bergmann
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Linguistic_turn
Re: Is morality objective or subjective?
Re: Is morality objective or subjective?
Grounded on a past that didn't exist. Very good.Veritas Aequitas wrote: ↑Wed Sep 06, 2023 3:08 am What I meant is things and reality emerged and are realized spontaneously grounded on a 13.5 billion years of physical history and 4.5 billion years of organic history. I believe this is that '500-pound-gorilla in the room' to you.
There is no pre-existing thing to be "interacted".
Re: Is morality objective or subjective?
No, I'm not. I'm talking about the opposite -- which evidently you can't even fathom. This is not about people jumping on a bandwagon of belief or lack of belief... it's about the obvious indicators that people think and believe in all different kinds of ways, even when they share the same environment. And they may experience very profound confirmations for what they think and believe. These are no less significant than your own confirmations. This vast potential suggests there's something much broader at work than any particular ideas/stories (theist or otherwise).Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Tue Sep 05, 2023 6:57 pmHmmm...well, you're making what's called "the bandwagon fallacy" again.
If they became atheists after being theists, then they have already considered the possibility. Anyone who sees no reason to believe in a god is being perfectly reasonable not to endeavor to convince themselves of it. Theism is not all good, nor all bad. You have demonstrated dishonesty and nonsense associated with theism. I've known very energetically radiant Christians -- and I've also experienced (on an ongoing basis) such energetically radiant energy existing beyond the spirit and structure of theism.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Tue Sep 05, 2023 6:57 pm Most Atheists, by becoming Atheists, have done their best to cut themselves off from such an opportunity at the very first post. They won't even consider the possibility that God could even exist, let alone that His intentions toward them could be beneficent and sincere.
You are the one who is 'cutting themselves off from such opportunity'. I think you darkly represent something else entirely.
- Immanuel Can
- Posts: 27604
- Joined: Wed Sep 25, 2013 4:42 pm
Re: Is morality objective or subjective?
If that's what you think "bandwagon fallacy" means, you don't know what it actually means. But here: https://www.grammarly.com/blog/bandwagon-fallacy/Lacewing wrote: ↑Wed Sep 06, 2023 5:36 amThis is not about people jumping on a bandwagon of belief or lack of belief...Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Tue Sep 05, 2023 6:57 pmHmmm...well, you're making what's called "the bandwagon fallacy" again.
If they became atheists after being theists, then they have already considered the possibility.[/quote] That can happen, perhaps; but it's much less common, it seems, than people having a loose awareness or religion, or having been raised with a nominal association with a tradition, and going Atheist for their own reason. But Atheism is inherently irrational, since it cannot summon evidence for its own case. So it raises the question of why people seek out an irrational commitment, in any case.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Tue Sep 05, 2023 6:57 pm Most Atheists, by becoming Atheists, have done their best to cut themselves off from such an opportunity at the very first post. They won't even consider the possibility that God could even exist, let alone that His intentions toward them could be beneficent and sincere.
That's like saying, "Anyone who sees no reason to believe in gravity is being perfectly reasonable not to endeavour to convince themselves of it." But they'd better do it before they step off any heights.Anyone who sees no reason to believe in a god is being perfectly reasonable not to endeavor to convince themselves of it.
Re: Is morality objective or subjective?
Maybe you need to re-read your own link. You're evidently applying your skewed interpretations again. It does not apply to what I said.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Wed Sep 06, 2023 5:44 amIf that's what you think "bandwagon fallacy" means, you don't know what it actually means. But here: ...Lacewing wrote: ↑Wed Sep 06, 2023 5:36 amThis is not about people jumping on a bandwagon of belief or lack of belief...Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Tue Sep 05, 2023 6:57 pm
Hmmm...well, you're making what's called "the bandwagon fallacy" again.
There doesn't need to be evidence for what we don't experience.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Tue Sep 05, 2023 6:57 pm Atheism is inherently irrational, since it cannot summon evidence for its own case.
That would apply to the claims of theism.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Tue Sep 05, 2023 6:57 pmSo it raises the question of why people seek out an irrational commitment, in any case.
It's nothing like that.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Tue Sep 05, 2023 6:57 pmThat's like saying, "Anyone who sees no reason to believe in gravity is being perfectly reasonable not to endeavour to convince themselves of it." But they'd better do it before they step off any heights.Lacewing wrote:Anyone who sees no reason to believe in a god is being perfectly reasonable not to endeavor to convince themselves of it.
Re: Is morality objective or subjective?
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Peter Holmes
- Posts: 4134
- Joined: Tue Jul 18, 2017 3:53 pm
Re: Is morality objective or subjective?
If, as you agree, a thing exists before we perceive, know and describe it, then its existence is 'mind-independent'. And the '13.5 billion years of physical history and 4.5 billion years of organic history' - that you agree occurred - must have been 'mind-independent'. You demolish your own argument.Veritas Aequitas wrote: ↑Wed Sep 06, 2023 3:08 am'which is subject interacted' is confusing.Peter Holmes wrote: ↑Tue Sep 05, 2023 12:53 pmAnd this remains gibberish, how ever many times you repeat it. 'A thing has to emerge to be realised as real within a framework and system of reality-framework and system of knowledge, which is subject interacted, before it can be perceived, known and described.' Why?Veritas Aequitas wrote: ↑Tue Sep 05, 2023 9:16 am
I agree, our perception, knowledge and description of a thing doesn't bring it into existence like say an apple or table out there.
Perceiving, Knowing & Describing a Thing Does not bring it into Existence
viewtopic.php?t=40715
BUT
But before any real thing is perceived, known and described it has to emerge to be realized as real within a FSR_FSK which is subject interacted, thus cannot be absolutely human independent or 'mind-independent'.
Thus, there a prior emergence and realization process to be accounted for.
What I meant is things and reality emerged and are realized spontaneously grounded on a 13.5 billion years of physical history and 4.5 billion years of organic history. I believe this is that '500-pound-gorilla in the room' to you.
Yes, I read it - and it does nothing to establish the mind-dependence of physical processes. All your expression 'emergence and realisation' means is that the universe has developed and evolved over billions of years.
There is no pre-existing thing to be "interacted".
Did you read this where I explain the processes of emergence and realization
Emergence & Realization
viewtopic.php?t=40721
As I've explained, I begin with a methodological distinction between three things: features of reality that are or were the case; what we believe and know about them; and what we say about them - which, in classical logic, may be true or false, given our contextual and conventional use of signs.
If your focus is not on language, then your focus is on reality and things that exist absolutely independent of the human conditions, i.e. mind-independent which is Philosophical Realism.As for the stuff about analytic philosophy - mistaking what we say for what we think is as confusing as mistaking what we say for the reality outside language. There was a wrong-turn to language, in my opinion, beginning with Frege and the Tractatus.
There was indeed a Linguistic Turn [Rorty] where the whole meaning of reality and things is based on how language is used.
So far, you have not been specific on what grounds are your philosophical stances based on?The Linguistic Turn was a major development in Western philosophy during the early 20th century, the most important characteristic of which is the focusing of philosophy primarily on the relations between language, language users, and the world.[1]
Very different intellectual movements were associated with the "linguistic turn", although the term itself is commonly thought to have been popularised by Richard Rorty's 1967 anthology The Linguistic Turn, in which he discusses the turn towards linguistic philosophy.
According to Rorty, who later dissociated himself from linguistic philosophy and analytic philosophy generally, the phrase "the linguistic turn" originated with philosopher Gustav Bergmann
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Linguistic_turn
I think this taxonomy - rigorously applied - unlocks the potential in the later Wittgenstein's insight into meaning as use - the 'right turn to language'. For example, it exposes the mistake of thinking that philosophy's true business is the analysis of thought or concepts.
And as for ontology, I reject claims about the existence and nature of supposed abstract or non-physical things, which, pending evidence, I think are irrational.