Peter Holmes wrote: ↑Fri Jul 28, 2023 10:11 am
Okay. Here's one point you refuse to acknowledge - one that IWP has made many times.
You agree that there are both 'ought-not-to-kill' and 'violent rage' mechanisms in the human brain. But if that's the case, then if one mechanism is what you call a moral fact, then so is the other.
My principle is this;
1. Whatever is reality, fact, knowledge, truths and objectivity are conditioned within a specific human-based FSK.
In the first place the 'ought-not-to-kill' and 'violent rage' mechanisms are both biological facts within the science biology FSK.
It is obvious the 'ought-not-to-kill' when inputted into the human-based moral [proper] FSK, it is an objective moral fact.
Since the "violent rage' mechanisms" and the 'ought-kill' are also inputted into the human-based moral [proper] FSK [1] as an evil element, it is also an objective moral fact. [... I have never deny this absolutely]
Your claim that a 'morality fsk' makes 'ought-not-to-kill' a moral fact simply begs the question. It just means that, given the moral judgement that not killing humans is good, and killing them is evil, you believe we should enhance one neural mechanism and inhibit the other.
Yes, but only when conditioned upon the human-based moral FSK with its constitution, conditions, etc.
You refuse to recognise that an is can't entail an ought - so that the ought has to come from elsewhere. That we ought to enhance 'ought-not-to-kill' is a moral judgement or opinion, and can never be a fact.
You don't understand Hume thoroughly and the limitations he had then in the 1700s.
Hume's
focus on the 'oughts' that were imposed on believers via commands from a God and other oughts from subjective feelings, opinions, beliefs and judgments re right vs wrong.
As an empiricist, Hume's other target were the rationalists' view on ethics.
- Book III, part I, section I of his book, A Treatise of Human Nature (1739):
In every system of morality, which I have hitherto met with, I have always remarked, that the author proceeds for some time in the ordinary way of reasoning, and establishes the being of a God, or makes observations concerning human affairs;
when of a sudden I am surprised to find, that instead of the usual copulations of propositions, is, and is not, I meet with no proposition that is not connected with an ought, or an ought not.
What Hume was ignorant [in the 1700s] were the inherent biological oughts [which Hume admitted he was ignorant of]. How can anyone deny 'all humans ought to breathe' as evident from the 'is' every human is experiencing and can easily understand?
I don't imagine you'll understand this explanation of your mistake, cos you've never even tried to do so.
I researched extensively and believe I have raised more than 50 threads on the topic of "No Is from Ought' in this Ethical Theory Section.
You?
Have you read Hume and understood thoroughly his thoughts on Ethics?