Is morality objective or subjective?

Should you think about your duty, or about the consequences of your actions? Or should you concentrate on becoming a good person?

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Skepdick
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Skepdick »

Peter Holmes wrote: Mon Jun 12, 2023 7:27 am A couple of dictionary definitions:

...
anti-realism: ...any position involving...the denial of an objective reality...
Looks like your dictionary is wrong.

It's anti REALISM. Not anti REALITY.

https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/antirealism
opposition to or deliberate eschewal of realism especially in art and literature
https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictio ... ti-realism
in philosophy, a belief that is opposed to realism
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/scientific-realism/
The term “antirealism” (or “anti-realism”) encompasses any position that is opposed to realism
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anti-realism
The term was first articulated by British philosopher Michael Dummett in an argument against a form of realism
Veritas Aequitas
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Peter Holmes wrote: Mon Jun 12, 2023 7:27 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sat Jun 10, 2023 2:12 am I do not agree with the idea of "solipsism';
Solipsism is Incoherent
https://iep.utm.edu/solipsis/#H7
'Solipsism' is merely is 'derogatory' term used by ignorant realists [philosophical] to condemn certain 'idealism' e.g. those of Berkeley's.
A couple of dictionary definitions:

solipsism: the view or theory that the self is all that can be known to exist.

anti-realism: ...any position involving...the denial of an objective reality...

I'd say that, on balance, an anti-realism is more likely than a realism to lead to solipsism.
Ignorant again with shallow, narrow and dogmatic knowledge.

Dictionary??
There many forms of realism as such it a very complex topic.
A realist is also an idealist and vice-versa depending on context.

Anti-philosophical_realism [Kantian] do not deny objective reality per se.
Anti-philosophical_realism [Kantian] only reject the objective-reality claimed by philosophical realists grounded on their illusory philosophical realism.

Anti-philosophical_realism accept the FSK-ed Objective Reality as in the human-based scientific FSK objectivity which is conditioned upon the intersubjective consensus of scientists [subjects].

Note this;
Two Senses of Objectivity
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39326
where I claim the p-realists' objective is illusory.

Human-based Scientific Objectivity
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39286
Do you deny human-based scientific facts are not Objective?

Thus I argued,
Philosophical Realism is Solipsistic.
viewtopic.php?t=40197
You are ignorant you are solipsistic while you accuse anti-realists are solipsistic, i.e. kicking your own arse.

I do not believe you have the intellectual capacity to understand [not necessary agree with] the above.
Peter Holmes
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Mon Jun 12, 2023 8:04 am Anti-philosophical_realism [Kantian] do not deny objective reality per se.
Anti-philosophical_realism [Kantian] only reject the objective-reality claimed by philosophical realists grounded on their illusory philosophical realism.
So, you agree that there is an 'objective reality' - a reality that just exists, regardless of opinion. At last!
Skepdick
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Skepdick »

Peter Holmes wrote: Mon Jun 12, 2023 9:11 am So, you agree that there is an 'objective reality'
There where?

If objective reality is "there" then what's "here"?
Peter Holmes wrote: Mon Jun 12, 2023 9:11 am a reality that just exists, regardless of opinion. At last!
Who or what is asserting that the reality (that is there) "just exists"? Which property of reality is its "existence"?
Veritas Aequitas
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Peter Holmes wrote: Mon Jun 12, 2023 9:11 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Mon Jun 12, 2023 8:04 am Anti-philosophical_realism [Kantian] do not deny objective reality per se.
Anti-philosophical_realism [Kantian] only reject the objective-reality claimed by philosophical realists grounded on their illusory philosophical realism.
So, you agree that there is an 'objective reality' - a reality that just exists, regardless of opinion. At last!
You missed the point??

In the above, it meant I reject "the objective-reality regardless of opinion" that is claimed by YOU, i.e. grounded on philosophical realism which is illusory.

I only accept "the objective-reality regardless of opinion" that is grounded on a human-based FSK which is independent of a person's or a loose group of persons' opinion, e.g. the human-based scientific FSK generating objective facts independent of individual scientist's or other individual's opinion.

Get it??
Peter Holmes
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Mon Jun 12, 2023 9:26 am
Peter Holmes wrote: Mon Jun 12, 2023 9:11 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Mon Jun 12, 2023 8:04 am Anti-philosophical_realism [Kantian] do not deny objective reality per se.
Anti-philosophical_realism [Kantian] only reject the objective-reality claimed by philosophical realists grounded on their illusory philosophical realism.
So, you agree that there is an 'objective reality' - a reality that just exists, regardless of opinion. At last!
You missed the point??

In the above, it meant I reject "the objective-reality regardless of opinion" that is claimed by YOU, i.e. grounded on philosophical realism which is illusory.

I only accept "the objective-reality regardless of opinion" that is grounded on a human-based FSK which is independent of a person's or a loose group of persons' opinion, e.g. the human-based scientific FSK generating objective facts independent of individual scientist's or other individual's opinion.

Get it??
No. You don't seem to understand what you wrote. Here it is, with some amendment.

Anti-philosophical realism [Kantian] do[es] not deny objective reality per se.

Now 'per se' means 'by or in itself' or 'as it is'. And that reality has nothing to do with my or anyone else's opinion. That's what 'objective' means.

So you agree with Kant that there is a reality that exists per se. Nowhere in Kant's work does he say that there is no reality outside or beyond human perception and knowledge. All he says is that humans must perceive and know reality through our experience and conceptual categories - that we have no choice but to work with phenomena: things as they appear to us. And that's why the noumenon is a tease.
Skepdick
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Skepdick »

Peter Holmes wrote: Mon Jun 12, 2023 2:39 pm
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Mon Jun 12, 2023 9:26 am
Peter Holmes wrote: Mon Jun 12, 2023 9:11 am
So, you agree that there is an 'objective reality' - a reality that just exists, regardless of opinion. At last!
You missed the point??

In the above, it meant I reject "the objective-reality regardless of opinion" that is claimed by YOU, i.e. grounded on philosophical realism which is illusory.

I only accept "the objective-reality regardless of opinion" that is grounded on a human-based FSK which is independent of a person's or a loose group of persons' opinion, e.g. the human-based scientific FSK generating objective facts independent of individual scientist's or other individual's opinion.

Get it??
No. You don't seem to understand what you wrote. Here it is, with some amendment.

Anti-philosophical realism [Kantian] do[es] not deny objective reality per se.

Now 'per se' means 'by or in itself' or 'as it is'. And that reality has nothing to do with my or anyone else's opinion. That's what 'objective' means.

So you agree with Kant that there is a reality that exists per se. Nowhere in Kant's work does he say that there is no reality outside or beyond human perception and knowledge. All he says is that humans must perceive and know reality through our experience and conceptual categories - that we have no choice but to work with phenomena: things as they appear to us.
"Reality" is a noun.

"Objective" is an adjective. All adjectives express human judgment.

In using the adjective "objective" to qualify the noun "reality" you are demonstarting mind-dependence.

The end (of the explanation (which Peter "Dumb Cunt" Holmes will surely misunderstand))
Peter Holmes wrote: Mon Jun 12, 2023 2:39 pm And that's why the noumenon is a tease.
Reality is the noumenon.
Peter Holmes
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Hey, VA. Reality is the noumenon. Sidekick dick-for-brains says so. Also, reality is reality. Also, shit is shit. Slaw of identity: a thing both is and is not what it is. And is not.
Veritas Aequitas
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Peter Holmes wrote: Mon Jun 12, 2023 2:39 pm
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Mon Jun 12, 2023 9:26 am
Peter Holmes wrote: Mon Jun 12, 2023 9:11 am
So, you agree that there is an 'objective reality' - a reality that just exists, regardless of opinion. At last!
You missed the point??

In the above, it meant I reject "the objective-reality regardless of opinion" that is claimed by YOU, i.e. grounded on philosophical realism which is illusory.

I only accept "the objective-reality regardless of opinion" that is grounded on a human-based FSK which is independent of a person's or a loose group of persons' opinion, e.g. the human-based scientific FSK generating objective facts independent of individual scientist's or other individual's opinion.

Get it??
No. You don't seem to understand what you wrote. Here it is, with some amendment.

Anti-philosophical realism [Kantian] do[es] not deny objective reality per se.

Now 'per se' means 'by or in itself' or 'as it is'. And that reality has nothing to do with my or anyone else's opinion. That's what 'objective' means.
OK, I had used 'per se' [by or in itself] wrongly.
My intention was to refer to 'objective reality' proper as in science which is human-based, thus not body-brain-mind-independent.

Correction:
Anti-philosophical realism [Kantian] do[es] not deny objective reality proper as with human-based scientific objective reality.
So you agree with Kant that there is a reality that exists per se.
Nowhere in Kant's work does he say that there is no reality outside or beyond human perception and knowledge.
All he says is that humans must perceive and know reality through our experience and conceptual categories - that we have no choice but to work with phenomena: things as they appear to us. And that's why the noumenon is a tease.
I am aware you do not understand Kant thoroughly; your above interpretation of Kant is wrong.

Kant never insisted humans must perceive and know reality through our experience and conceptual categories.
Kant argued on the basis of the realization of reality conditioned upon human conditions which is then subsequently perceived. There is a very complex process of realization of reality before its perceived, known and described.

Where you insist there is only a mind-independent reality, for Kant, that is the noumenon which Kant justified is an illusion.

Nevertheless, in the ordinary sense, not philosophical realism, the noumenon is a useful illusion.
Peter Holmes
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Tue Jun 13, 2023 4:43 am
Peter Holmes wrote: Mon Jun 12, 2023 2:39 pm
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Mon Jun 12, 2023 9:26 am
You missed the point??

In the above, it meant I reject "the objective-reality regardless of opinion" that is claimed by YOU, i.e. grounded on philosophical realism which is illusory.

I only accept "the objective-reality regardless of opinion" that is grounded on a human-based FSK which is independent of a person's or a loose group of persons' opinion, e.g. the human-based scientific FSK generating objective facts independent of individual scientist's or other individual's opinion.

Get it??
No. You don't seem to understand what you wrote. Here it is, with some amendment.

Anti-philosophical realism [Kantian] do[es] not deny objective reality per se.

Now 'per se' means 'by or in itself' or 'as it is'. And that reality has nothing to do with my or anyone else's opinion. That's what 'objective' means.
OK, I had used 'per se' [by or in itself] wrongly.
My intention was to refer to 'objective reality' proper as in science which is human-based, thus not body-brain-mind-independent.

Correction:
Anti-philosophical realism [Kantian] do[es] not deny objective reality proper as with human-based scientific objective reality.
So you agree with Kant that there is a reality that exists per se.
Nowhere in Kant's work does he say that there is no reality outside or beyond human perception and knowledge.
All he says is that humans must perceive and know reality through our experience and conceptual categories - that we have no choice but to work with phenomena: things as they appear to us. And that's why the noumenon is a tease.
I am aware you do not understand Kant thoroughly; your above interpretation of Kant is wrong.

Kant never insisted humans must perceive and know reality through our experience and conceptual categories.
Kant argued on the basis of the realization of reality conditioned upon human conditions which is then subsequently perceived. There is a very complex process of realization of reality before its perceived, known and described.

Where you insist there is only a mind-independent reality, for Kant, that is the noumenon which Kant justified is an illusion.

Nevertheless, in the ordinary sense, not philosophical realism, the noumenon is a useful illusion.
1 Exactly what is the noumenon?
2 Why is the noumenon a useful illusion?
3 Please cite one example of Kant saying that there is no reality outside or beyond what humans can know. I could have missed it - so this is a genuine request.
Veritas Aequitas
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Peter Holmes wrote: Tue Jun 13, 2023 7:27 am 1 Exactly what is the noumenon?
2 Why is the noumenon a useful illusion?
3 Please cite one example of Kant saying that there is no reality outside or beyond what humans can know. I could have missed it - so this is a genuine request.
1. I have already mentioned this a "1000" times where Kant explained what is the noumenon in contrast to the phenomena.

Kant: Phenomena vs Noumena [B294-B310]
viewtopic.php?t=40170
Kant: Phenomena vs Noumena [B306-B315]

2. A noumenon cannot never be real in the positive empirical sense [mind-related], but it can be merely thought as an intelligible thought only.
E.g. of empirical noumenon are perfect circle, perfect triangle, square, geometry shapes. These noumenon do not exist within empirical reality but they are used as standards as guide to make more realistic shapes.
As such they are useful illusions.

God as thing-in-itself is an intelligible idea which cannot be empirical, but God is nevertheless useful for theists to soothe their cognitive dissonance with its salvific value and the illusory has other utilities to the majority.

3. If you are familiar with the CPR, the whole CPR assert there is no reality that can be empirically known.
  • The Possibility of Experience is, then, what gives Objective Reality to all our a priori Modes of Knowledge. B195
  • they [Appearances] are yet the only Objects in regard to which our Knowledge can possess Objective Reality,
    that is, in respect of which there is an Intuition corresponding to the Concepts. B335
  • There will therefore be Syllogisms which contain no Empirical premisses, and by means of which we conclude from something which we know* to something else of which we have no Concept,
    and to which, owing to an inevitable Illusion, we yet ascribe Objective Reality. B397
Re B397, without grounding on what is knowable [empirical] humans are deluded by pure reason to illusions but ignorantly insist such has objective reality.
Peter Holmes
Posts: 4134
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Tue Jun 13, 2023 7:50 am
Peter Holmes wrote: Tue Jun 13, 2023 7:27 am 1 Exactly what is the noumenon?
2 Why is the noumenon a useful illusion?
3 Please cite one example of Kant saying that there is no reality outside or beyond what humans can know. I could have missed it - so this is a genuine request.
1. I have already mentioned this a "1000" times where Kant explained what is the noumenon in contrast to the phenomena.

Kant: Phenomena vs Noumena [B294-B310]
viewtopic.php?t=40170
Kant: Phenomena vs Noumena [B306-B315]

2. A noumenon cannot never be real in the positive empirical sense [mind-related], but it can be merely thought as an intelligible thought only.
E.g. of empirical noumenon are perfect circle, perfect triangle, square, geometry shapes. These noumenon do not exist within empirical reality but they are used as standards as guide to make more realistic shapes.
As such they are useful illusions.

God as thing-in-itself is an intelligible idea which cannot be empirical, but God is nevertheless useful for theists to soothe their cognitive dissonance with its salvific value and the illusory has other utilities to the majority.

3. If you are familiar with the CPR, the whole CPR assert there is no reality that can be empirically known.
  • The Possibility of Experience is, then, what gives Objective Reality to all our a priori Modes of Knowledge. B195
  • they [Appearances] are yet the only Objects in regard to which our Knowledge can possess Objective Reality,
    that is, in respect of which there is an Intuition corresponding to the Concepts. B335
  • There will therefore be Syllogisms which contain no Empirical premisses, and by means of which we conclude from something which we know* to something else of which we have no Concept,
    and to which, owing to an inevitable Illusion, we yet ascribe Objective Reality. B397
Re B397, without grounding on what is knowable [empirical] humans are deluded by pure reason to illusions but ignorantly insist such has objective reality.
Nowhere here does Kant say that there can be no reality beyond or outside what humans can know.

To say the object orbits the subject is not to say the object doesn't exist.
Veritas Aequitas
Posts: 15722
Joined: Wed Jul 11, 2012 4:41 am

Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Peter Holmes wrote: Wed Jun 14, 2023 6:58 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Tue Jun 13, 2023 7:50 am
Peter Holmes wrote: Tue Jun 13, 2023 7:27 am 1 Exactly what is the noumenon?
2 Why is the noumenon a useful illusion?
3 Please cite one example of Kant saying that there is no reality outside or beyond what humans can know. I could have missed it - so this is a genuine request.
1. I have already mentioned this a "1000" times where Kant explained what is the noumenon in contrast to the phenomena.

Kant: Phenomena vs Noumena [B294-B310]
viewtopic.php?t=40170
Kant: Phenomena vs Noumena [B306-B315]

2. A noumenon cannot never be real in the positive empirical sense [mind-related], but it can be merely thought as an intelligible thought only.
E.g. of empirical noumenon are perfect circle, perfect triangle, square, geometry shapes. These noumenon do not exist within empirical reality but they are used as standards as guide to make more realistic shapes.
As such they are useful illusions.

God as thing-in-itself is an intelligible idea which cannot be empirical, but God is nevertheless useful for theists to soothe their cognitive dissonance with its salvific value and the illusory has other utilities to the majority.

3. If you are familiar with the CPR, the whole CPR assert there is no reality that can be empirically known.
  • The Possibility of Experience is, then, what gives Objective Reality to all our a priori Modes of Knowledge. B195
  • they [Appearances] are yet the only Objects in regard to which our Knowledge can possess Objective Reality,
    that is, in respect of which there is an Intuition corresponding to the Concepts. B335
  • There will therefore be Syllogisms which contain no Empirical premisses, and by means of which we conclude from something which we know* to something else of which we have no Concept,
    and to which, owing to an inevitable Illusion, we yet ascribe Objective Reality. B397
Re B397, without grounding on what is knowable [empirical] humans are deluded by pure reason to illusions but ignorantly insist such has objective reality.
Nowhere here does Kant say that there can be no reality beyond or outside what humans can know.

To say the object orbits the subject is not to say the object doesn't exist.
Kant never said the object orbits the subject.

You have to read the whole of Kant's CPR to assert;
"Nowhere here does Kant say that there can be no reality beyond or outside what humans can know."
with any confidence.

Despite my explanation above and request to read the mentioned chapter,
you are grounding your view of reality on philosophical realism which Kant critiqued as based on Pure Reason, as such is chasing after an illusion.
This is why you are so bewitched with the starting point "there can be no reality beyond or outside what humans can know."

Here is another point where I have mentioned often;
  • 1. Philosophical realists [mind-independence] claim there are objects that exist beyond or outside what humans can know. Kant stated such objects as claimed by p-realists are intelligible objects, i.e. noumenon which are illusory.
    The noumenon is an intelligible object, i.e. merely a thought, not a matter-of-fact [FSK-ed].
Phenomena are sensible objects in reality, not merely as appearances but cover what emerged and realized, capable of being FSK-ed.
Phenomena that emerged and realized as reality are the only things that can be known via FSKs.
  • Phenomena [sensible] vs Noumena [Intelligible]
    1a: At the same time, if we entitle certain Objects, as Appearances, Sensible entities 2 (Phenomena),
    then since we thus distinguish the Mode in which we intuit them from the nature that belongs to them in-themselves,
    it is implied in this distinction that we place the latter [in-themselves], considered in their own nature,
    although we do not so intuit them, or that we place other Possible Things, which are not Objects of our Senses but are Thought as Objects merely through the Understanding,
    in opposition to the former [Phenomena, sensible entities],
    and that in so doing we entitle them Intelligible Entities 1 (Noumena).B306

    1b. If by 'Noumenon' we mean a Thing so far as it is not an Object of our Sensible Intuition, and so abstract from our Mode of intuiting it, {then} this is a Noumenon in the negative sense of the term. B306


    1c: But if we understand by it an Object of a non-Sensible Intuition, we thereby presuppose a special Mode of Intuition, namely, the intellectual, which is not that which we possess, and of which we cannot comprehend even the Possibility. This would be 'Noumenon' in the positive sense of the term. B306

    1d. Doubtless, indeed, there are Intelligible entities corresponding to the Sensible entities;
    there may also be Intelligible entities to which our Sensible Faculty of Intuition has no Relation whatsoever;
    but our Concepts of Understanding, being mere Forms of Thought for our Sensible Intuition, could not in the least apply to them {intelligible entities}.
    That, therefore, which we entitle 'Noumenon' must be understood as being [re intelligible entities] such only in a negative sense. B309

    1e. ...when the Object is not a Phenomenon (that is, is a Noumenon);
    and it is in this latter sense {as Noumena} that the Object is taken,
    when it is thought as merely Intelligible, that is to say, as being Given to the Understanding alone, and not to the Senses. B313
2. For the Intelligible [object] would require a quite peculiar Intuition which we do not possess,
and in the absence of this [Intuition] [the intelligible object] would be for us nothing at all;
and, on the other hand, it is also evident that Appearances could not be Objects-in-Themselves. CPR B336

The noumenon [as claimed by p-realist] which is supposed to be a reality beyond knowledge, if to exist as real, theoretically, would need a peculiar intuition, but humans do not possess such an intelligible intuition to realize the noumenon as an intelligible object.

So, there can be no mind-independent reality* beyond or outside what humans can know."
* mind independent reality as claimed by philosophical realists.

I anticipate it is not easy for you to grasp the above but try to chew on it you may get it.
Btw, I don't have an onus to cure your ignorance in this case.
Peter Holmes
Posts: 4134
Joined: Tue Jul 18, 2017 3:53 pm

Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Wed Jun 14, 2023 8:26 am
Peter Holmes wrote: Wed Jun 14, 2023 6:58 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Tue Jun 13, 2023 7:50 am
1. I have already mentioned this a "1000" times where Kant explained what is the noumenon in contrast to the phenomena.

Kant: Phenomena vs Noumena [B294-B310]
viewtopic.php?t=40170
Kant: Phenomena vs Noumena [B306-B315]

2. A noumenon cannot never be real in the positive empirical sense [mind-related], but it can be merely thought as an intelligible thought only.
E.g. of empirical noumenon are perfect circle, perfect triangle, square, geometry shapes. These noumenon do not exist within empirical reality but they are used as standards as guide to make more realistic shapes.
As such they are useful illusions.

God as thing-in-itself is an intelligible idea which cannot be empirical, but God is nevertheless useful for theists to soothe their cognitive dissonance with its salvific value and the illusory has other utilities to the majority.

3. If you are familiar with the CPR, the whole CPR assert there is no reality that can be empirically known.
  • The Possibility of Experience is, then, what gives Objective Reality to all our a priori Modes of Knowledge. B195
  • they [Appearances] are yet the only Objects in regard to which our Knowledge can possess Objective Reality,
    that is, in respect of which there is an Intuition corresponding to the Concepts. B335
  • There will therefore be Syllogisms which contain no Empirical premisses, and by means of which we conclude from something which we know* to something else of which we have no Concept,
    and to which, owing to an inevitable Illusion, we yet ascribe Objective Reality. B397
Re B397, without grounding on what is knowable [empirical] humans are deluded by pure reason to illusions but ignorantly insist such has objective reality.
Nowhere here does Kant say that there can be no reality beyond or outside what humans can know.

To say the object orbits the subject is not to say the object doesn't exist.
Kant never said the object orbits the subject.

You have to read the whole of Kant's CPR to assert;
"Nowhere here does Kant say that there can be no reality beyond or outside what humans can know."
with any confidence.

Despite my explanation above and request to read the mentioned chapter,
you are grounding your view of reality on philosophical realism which Kant critiqued as based on Pure Reason, as such is chasing after an illusion.
This is why you are so bewitched with the starting point "there can be no reality beyond or outside what humans can know."

Here is another point where I have mentioned often;
  • 1. Philosophical realists [mind-independence] claim there are objects that exist beyond or outside what humans can know. Kant stated such objects as claimed by p-realists are intelligible objects, i.e. noumenon which are illusory.
    The noumenon is an intelligible object, i.e. merely a thought, not a matter-of-fact [FSK-ed].
Phenomena are sensible objects in reality, not merely as appearances but cover what emerged and realized, capable of being FSK-ed.
Phenomena that emerged and realized as reality are the only things that can be known via FSKs.
  • Phenomena [sensible] vs Noumena [Intelligible]
    1a: At the same time, if we entitle certain Objects, as Appearances, Sensible entities 2 (Phenomena),
    then since we thus distinguish the Mode in which we intuit them from the nature that belongs to them in-themselves,
    it is implied in this distinction that we place the latter [in-themselves], considered in their own nature,
    although we do not so intuit them, or that we place other Possible Things, which are not Objects of our Senses but are Thought as Objects merely through the Understanding,
    in opposition to the former [Phenomena, sensible entities],
    and that in so doing we entitle them Intelligible Entities 1 (Noumena).B306

    1b. If by 'Noumenon' we mean a Thing so far as it is not an Object of our Sensible Intuition, and so abstract from our Mode of intuiting it, {then} this is a Noumenon in the negative sense of the term. B306


    1c: But if we understand by it an Object of a non-Sensible Intuition, we thereby presuppose a special Mode of Intuition, namely, the intellectual, which is not that which we possess, and of which we cannot comprehend even the Possibility. This would be 'Noumenon' in the positive sense of the term. B306

    1d. Doubtless, indeed, there are Intelligible entities corresponding to the Sensible entities;
    there may also be Intelligible entities to which our Sensible Faculty of Intuition has no Relation whatsoever;
    but our Concepts of Understanding, being mere Forms of Thought for our Sensible Intuition, could not in the least apply to them {intelligible entities}.
    That, therefore, which we entitle 'Noumenon' must be understood as being [re intelligible entities] such only in a negative sense. B309

    1e. ...when the Object is not a Phenomenon (that is, is a Noumenon);
    and it is in this latter sense {as Noumena} that the Object is taken,
    when it is thought as merely Intelligible, that is to say, as being Given to the Understanding alone, and not to the Senses. B313
2. For the Intelligible [object] would require a quite peculiar Intuition which we do not possess,
and in the absence of this [Intuition] [the intelligible object] would be for us nothing at all;
and, on the other hand, it is also evident that Appearances could not be Objects-in-Themselves. CPR B336

The noumenon [as claimed by p-realist] which is supposed to be a reality beyond knowledge, if to exist as real, theoretically, would need a peculiar intuition, but humans do not possess such an intelligible intuition to realize the noumenon as an intelligible object.

So, there can be no mind-independent reality* beyond or outside what humans can know."
* mind independent reality as claimed by philosophical realists.

I anticipate it is not easy for you to grasp the above but try to chew on it you may get it.
Btw, I don't have an onus to cure your ignorance in this case.
Patronising twat. I wonder why you think I haven't spent half a lifetime reading and understanding Kant's drivel.

I wonder why you swallow whole Kant's spurious distinction between sensible and intelligible entities, between sensible and intellectual intuition. I wonder why you think that 'the nature that objects have in themselves' is any different from their sensible nature.

I wonder why you cling to this claptrap despite centuries of refutation and demolition.

Just quoting rubbish does nothing to improve it.
Atla
Posts: 9936
Joined: Fri Dec 15, 2017 8:27 am

Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Atla »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Wed Jun 14, 2023 8:26 am
Peter Holmes wrote: Wed Jun 14, 2023 6:58 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Tue Jun 13, 2023 7:50 am
1. I have already mentioned this a "1000" times where Kant explained what is the noumenon in contrast to the phenomena.

Kant: Phenomena vs Noumena [B294-B310]
viewtopic.php?t=40170
Kant: Phenomena vs Noumena [B306-B315]

2. A noumenon cannot never be real in the positive empirical sense [mind-related], but it can be merely thought as an intelligible thought only.
E.g. of empirical noumenon are perfect circle, perfect triangle, square, geometry shapes. These noumenon do not exist within empirical reality but they are used as standards as guide to make more realistic shapes.
As such they are useful illusions.

God as thing-in-itself is an intelligible idea which cannot be empirical, but God is nevertheless useful for theists to soothe their cognitive dissonance with its salvific value and the illusory has other utilities to the majority.

3. If you are familiar with the CPR, the whole CPR assert there is no reality that can be empirically known.
  • The Possibility of Experience is, then, what gives Objective Reality to all our a priori Modes of Knowledge. B195
  • they [Appearances] are yet the only Objects in regard to which our Knowledge can possess Objective Reality,
    that is, in respect of which there is an Intuition corresponding to the Concepts. B335
  • There will therefore be Syllogisms which contain no Empirical premisses, and by means of which we conclude from something which we know* to something else of which we have no Concept,
    and to which, owing to an inevitable Illusion, we yet ascribe Objective Reality. B397
Re B397, without grounding on what is knowable [empirical] humans are deluded by pure reason to illusions but ignorantly insist such has objective reality.
Nowhere here does Kant say that there can be no reality beyond or outside what humans can know.

To say the object orbits the subject is not to say the object doesn't exist.
Kant never said the object orbits the subject.

You have to read the whole of Kant's CPR to assert;
"Nowhere here does Kant say that there can be no reality beyond or outside what humans can know."
with any confidence.

Despite my explanation above and request to read the mentioned chapter,
you are grounding your view of reality on philosophical realism which Kant critiqued as based on Pure Reason, as such is chasing after an illusion.
This is why you are so bewitched with the starting point "there can be no reality beyond or outside what humans can know."

Here is another point where I have mentioned often;
  • 1. Philosophical realists [mind-independence] claim there are objects that exist beyond or outside what humans can know. Kant stated such objects as claimed by p-realists are intelligible objects, i.e. noumenon which are illusory.
    The noumenon is an intelligible object, i.e. merely a thought, not a matter-of-fact [FSK-ed].
Phenomena are sensible objects in reality, not merely as appearances but cover what emerged and realized, capable of being FSK-ed.
Phenomena that emerged and realized as reality are the only things that can be known via FSKs.
  • Phenomena [sensible] vs Noumena [Intelligible]
    1a: At the same time, if we entitle certain Objects, as Appearances, Sensible entities 2 (Phenomena),
    then since we thus distinguish the Mode in which we intuit them from the nature that belongs to them in-themselves,
    it is implied in this distinction that we place the latter [in-themselves], considered in their own nature,
    although we do not so intuit them, or that we place other Possible Things, which are not Objects of our Senses but are Thought as Objects merely through the Understanding,
    in opposition to the former [Phenomena, sensible entities],
    and that in so doing we entitle them Intelligible Entities 1 (Noumena).B306

    1b. If by 'Noumenon' we mean a Thing so far as it is not an Object of our Sensible Intuition, and so abstract from our Mode of intuiting it, {then} this is a Noumenon in the negative sense of the term. B306


    1c: But if we understand by it an Object of a non-Sensible Intuition, we thereby presuppose a special Mode of Intuition, namely, the intellectual, which is not that which we possess, and of which we cannot comprehend even the Possibility. This would be 'Noumenon' in the positive sense of the term. B306

    1d. Doubtless, indeed, there are Intelligible entities corresponding to the Sensible entities;
    there may also be Intelligible entities to which our Sensible Faculty of Intuition has no Relation whatsoever;
    but our Concepts of Understanding, being mere Forms of Thought for our Sensible Intuition, could not in the least apply to them {intelligible entities}.
    That, therefore, which we entitle 'Noumenon' must be understood as being [re intelligible entities] such only in a negative sense. B309

    1e. ...when the Object is not a Phenomenon (that is, is a Noumenon);
    and it is in this latter sense {as Noumena} that the Object is taken,
    when it is thought as merely Intelligible, that is to say, as being Given to the Understanding alone, and not to the Senses. B313
2. For the Intelligible [object] would require a quite peculiar Intuition which we do not possess,
and in the absence of this [Intuition] [the intelligible object] would be for us nothing at all;
and, on the other hand, it is also evident that Appearances could not be Objects-in-Themselves. CPR B336

The noumenon [as claimed by p-realist] which is supposed to be a reality beyond knowledge, if to exist as real, theoretically, would need a peculiar intuition, but humans do not possess such an intelligible intuition to realize the noumenon as an intelligible object.

So, there can be no mind-independent reality* beyond or outside what humans can know."
* mind independent reality as claimed by philosophical realists.

I anticipate it is not easy for you to grasp the above but try to chew on it you may get it.
Btw, I don't have an onus to cure your ignorance in this case.
Kant does NOT seem to say here that there can be no mind-independent reality. He says that if there's such a reality, it would be for us nothing at all. (because it's unknowable)
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