CIN wrote: ↑Wed Dec 14, 2022 1:27 am
Peter Holmes wrote: ↑Mon Dec 12, 2022 9:28 am
CIN wrote: ↑Mon Dec 12, 2022 1:20 am
I agree that a painting cannot be objectively beautiful or objectively ugly. I think this is irrelevant to the moral issue.
I don't understand you. Why are these expressions incoherent?
As I said, I think the aesthetic and moral issues differ. You can't settle the moral issue by assuming that an analogy with the aesthetic issue holds, you can only do it either by showing that the analogy holds, or by discarding the aesthetic issue and simply proving that moral subjectivism is correct.
It is true that some supposed explanations would not show objectivism to be true, but this does not prove that there are NO explanations that would prove this. You have to take each supposed explanation on its merits.
Here's what I see as the problem with your statements quoted above:
You said, regarding slavery, 'I think it is always wrong.' You also said ' whether slavery (or anything else) is morally right or wrong - and always or only sometimes - is a matter of belief, judgement or opinion.' Now if you say 'I think it is always wrong', and you also say that whether it is right or wrong is a matter of belief, then this strongly implies that you believe that the statement 'slavery is wrong' is true. But the only way 'slavery is wrong' can be true is if slavery is wrong, which would be a moral fact. So you have strongly implied that you accept that there are moral facts. And yet you have often claimed in these forums that there aren't any moral facts. Your position therefore appears to be inconsistent.
I was trying to give you the opportunity to explain your statement 'I think [slavery] is always wrong' in some way which would avoid this inconsistency. You have sidestepped my question, and introduced an analogy which I think is not relevant, or which, at least, you have not shown is relevant.
Frankly, I think you are guilty of holding an objectivist view about slavery — that it is wrong — while falsely claiming to be a subjectivist.
Over to you.
1 Here are two assertions between which there's no logical contradiction:
There are no moral facts. Slavery is morally wrong.
I assume you understand why there's no contradiction.
Okay, I'll parody this argument of yours.
Here are two assertions between which there is no logical contradiction:
There are no physical facts. The earth is physically round.
I assume you now understand why your argument is crap.
Your parody demonstrates my point precisely. Since the shape of the earth is indeed a physical fact, the claim 'there are no physical facts' is false - and the two assertions are contradictory.
Peter Holmes wrote: ↑Mon Dec 12, 2022 9:28 am2 If there are no moral facts, then a moral assertion doesn't make a factual claim with a truth-value.
I assume you understand the function of a hypothetical premise.
You haven't yet shown that there are no moral facts, so the antecedent of your hypothetical premise has not been satisfied.
So my assumption was incorrect: you don't understand the function of a hypothetical premise. The premise 'If X is the case, then Y is the case' doesn't assume that X is the case. That's the whole point. It merely asserts a hypothesis: if...then... And I think my hypothesis is correct. If you disagree, by all means explain why you think it's incorrect: why the subsequent doesn't follow from the antecedent.
Peter Holmes wrote: ↑Mon Dec 12, 2022 9:28 am3 In the expression 'X is subjectively morally wrong', the modifier 'subjectively' is grammatically misattached, because it doesn't refer to the moral wrongness of X. It refers to the status or function of the assertion
that X is morally wrong.
I assume you're familiar with grammatical misattachments, such as
abstract noun and
true belief.
Okay. So 'X is subjectively morally wrong' should be rewritten as 'the assertion that X is morally wrong is subjective.' This is false, because 'X is morally wrong' makes a factual claim, and is therefore objective. Compare 'the assertion that the earth is physically round is subjective.' This is also false, for the same reason.
This merely begs the question, by assuming that a moral assertion makes a factual claim with a truth-value. And the assertion 'the earth is physically round [sic]' is objective - and therefore has a truth-value - precisely because it claims something about reality that may or may not be the case, regardless of opinion.
Peter Holmes wrote: ↑Mon Dec 12, 2022 9:28 am4 The analogy between aesthetic and moral assertions is precise. Both express value-judgements with no factual truth-value. Since beauty and ugliness are
not independent properties, neither are moral rightness and wrongness.
You have provided no support for your assertion 'Both express value-judgements with no factual truth-value', so this reply gets you precisely nowhere.
Not so. I've been consistently supporting my assertion for ages through this interminable discussion.
The trouble with your posts, Peter, is that, on analysis, they always turn out to ASSUME that subjectivism is true. If you merely stated that you were unaware of any moral facts, that statement would be unexceptionable; but you go much further, and make the substantive claim that there are NO moral facts. You can't expect anyone to accept this claim if you don't provide reasonable grounds for believing that it is true, and you're just not doing this. Also, it would be unexceptionable for you, as a supposed subjectivist, to say something like 'I strongly disapprove of slavery'; that would be okay, because it would be merely a statement about you, and not about slavery (though of course, for that reason, it would be of no real interest to anyone else in a forum like this). But you muddy the waters by saying things like 'I think slavery is wrong', which, in a forum like this where people must be assumed to understand the implications of the words they use, can only reasonably be taken as a statement that you think this is a fact.
I agree that there are two parts to my argument - but they're intimately connected. I, and other skeptics, ask for evidence for the existence of even one moral fact: one supposed moral feature of reality that is or was the case, regardless of opinion. Rational response comes there none. Nothing but question-begging and/or equivocatory rubbish.
And I argue that the reason for this moral realist/objectivist failure is the absurdity of the claim that there even could be a moral fact; that the very expression 'moral fact' is incoherent; that it represents an extraordinary category error; that such a thing doesn't exist because it can't exist.
Moral realists/objectivists claim that it's a fact that, say, abortion is/is not morally wrong. That it must be one or the other, so that the assertion 'abortion is morally wrong' is true or false. And I'm saying that's a ridiculous idea.
By all means, have a go at demolishing my argument at a stroke, by producing one moral fact and showing that it is indeed a feature of reality that is or was the case, regardless of opinion. That's all it would take. Put your money where your mouth is. Over to you.