Let's take the time to carefully pull apart and dissect Immanuel Can's strange manoeuvre which is his "legitimacy" defence against
my argument.
That argument's references to "just" assume the standard, dictionary definition of "justice", and, on this definition, my argument is sound (at least, Immanuel Can has provided no reason to think otherwise).
I have
pointed out that if we instead assume a supposedly "Biblical" definition of justice in which eternal, unimaginable punishment for finite transgressions is "just", then the Bible is engaged in doublespeak, so, let's set that possibility aside for now.
Immanuel Can, then, seems to be asking me to "legitimate" the standard, dictionary definition of "justice". There are two possibilities here:
- Immanuel Can also accepts the standard, dictionary definition of "justice". In this case, he must have his own "legitimation" for this concept - whether explicitly or implicitly - and thus has no need for me to provide one.
- Immanuel Can rejects on the grounds of "illegitimacy" the standard, dictionary definition of "justice". In this case, he has a burden to explain why he considers it to be illegitimate, what his alternative definition is, and how he "legitimates" his alternative definition. He must have some "legitimated" definition, given that the word is used in the Bible, on which his fundamental beliefs are based.
So, here's a direct question to you, Immanuel Can: which of the two numbered possibilities above is the case? Only you can tell us.
(Who wants to estimate the odds that this question is skipped, snipped, and utterly ignored, as if it didn't even exist - or, at least, responded to in a shifty, indirect way which avoids explicitly choosing either option?)