What could make morality objective?

Should you think about your duty, or about the consequences of your actions? Or should you concentrate on becoming a good person?

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Peter Holmes
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Belinda wrote: Mon Jan 31, 2022 1:59 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: Mon Jan 31, 2022 1:30 pm
Belinda wrote: Mon Jan 31, 2022 11:58 am Veritas Aequitas wrote:



Intersubjective consensus pertains to the coherence theory of truth.
I disagree, because the coherence theory of truth is not specifically a consensus theory.

(A consensus theory of truth - intersubjective or not - is ridiculous anyway, but that's a different story. And anyway, a theory of truth can be nothing more than an explanation of how we do or could use the word 'truth', its cognates and related words, such as 'falsehood'. What we mean when we say a factual assertion is true constitutes what we call truth - and that specifically excludes any idea of consensus. And words can mean only what we use them to mean.)
A theory is indeed an explanation. For some people truth does mean consensus. Truth to some other people including yourself means correspondence to a reality independent of what people mean.

If you use words too eccentrically nobody will understand you.
I agree about the problem of eccentricity. But my argument is that theorising about so-called abstract things, such as truth, is always already a mistake. Instead of doing the only thing we can rationally do - which is look at our linguistic practices - the ways we use so-called abstract nouns in different contexts - philosophers have deludedly treated abstract nouns as names of things of some kind that can be described or analysed - as in so-called conceptual analysis.

The fruit of this delusion is competing theories of fictional things such as truth. And correspondence theories of truth - or truth-maker/truth-bearer theories - are just as deluded as any others.
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FlashDangerpants
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by FlashDangerpants »

Belinda wrote: Mon Jan 31, 2022 1:59 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: Mon Jan 31, 2022 1:30 pm
Belinda wrote: Mon Jan 31, 2022 11:58 am Veritas Aequitas wrote:



Intersubjective consensus pertains to the coherence theory of truth.
I disagree, because the coherence theory of truth is not specifically a consensus theory.

(A consensus theory of truth - intersubjective or not - is ridiculous anyway, but that's a different story. And anyway, a theory of truth can be nothing more than an explanation of how we do or could use the word 'truth', its cognates and related words, such as 'falsehood'. What we mean when we say a factual assertion is true constitutes what we call truth - and that specifically excludes any idea of consensus. And words can mean only what we use them to mean.)
A theory is indeed an explanation. For some people truth does mean consensus. Truth to some other people including yourself means correspondence to a reality independent of what people mean.

If you use words too eccentrically nobody will understand you.
A very, very, entirely normal thing to say about facts is that if something is a fact, then a contradiction of that fact must be false. Pete and I are using the term that way. Everyone else seems to be stuck with some eccentric notion of facts that can be contradictory but still true.


Again and again and again, everyone on this forum seems to be mindlessly trying to analyse things on the basis of nothig but what you suppose them to be made out of. Look at the function they perform....

Facts exclude contradiction, succesfully contradicted facts are not factual. This is basic to the concept of a fact. Dressing something up as some sort of "FSK" doesn't make it a systematic source of objective fact unless that FSK bullshit contains a mode of verification. This statement doesn't contain a verificationist theory of truth, it just describes how we do use the notion of fact in our language.
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FlashDangerpants
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by FlashDangerpants »

Belinda wrote: Mon Jan 31, 2022 2:09 pm FlashDangerpants wrote :
If somebody decides your moral FSK is stupid and just makes their own competing one with different facts, their competing moral FSK would be exactly as credible as yours (which apparently you have measured at 80% now rather than the 95 I would expect you to give to your own homework).
I refer again to theories of truth. Most of us here will agree some moral FSKs are better than others. For instance few philosophers think the medieval FSK involving a supernatural Person is a good FSK. Modern science is now popularly considered to be more reasoned, coherent, and fertile than medieval theism.Therefore FlashDP subscribes to the coherence theory of truth.
What is the K doing in this analysis? You can have a system and a framework of interpetation, or of opinion, or of kind of anything. Dressing them up as systems of kowledge is often fraudulent.
Veritas Aequitas
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Peter Holmes wrote: Mon Jan 31, 2022 9:29 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Mon Jan 31, 2022 4:37 am
I claimed MY [not others, e.g. utilitarianism] proposed Moral FSK is of near equivalent credibility to the scientific FSK.
My proposed Moral FSK rely heavily on scientific facts from the scientific FSK plus sound philosophical reasonings.
You are missing all my critical points.

Note:

1. ALL Facts are [polished opinions, conjectures] resulting from a specific FSK.
2. My proposed Moral FSK [credibility of 80/100] is a specific FSK.
3. My Moral FSK produce Moral Facts as polished opinions, conjectures.

I have argued how we obtain from my proposed Moral FSK,
the moral fact, i.e. It is morally wrong for a human to kill another human,
this is grounded on the empirical fact,
No normal human would want to be killed [by another humans or other reasons].
The philosophical reasonings for this is quite complex so I won't go into the details here.
To repeat (ad nauseam): grounding or basing a moral opinion on a fact doesn't turn the moral opinion into a fact. So your argument doesn't even make it to the starting post. Here it is:

Premise: No normal human would want to be killed (...). Conclusion: Therefore it is morally wrong to kill a human being.

The conclusion does not follow from the premise. Even if it's true (which it isn't), the premise does not entail the conclusion. If it did, the following is valid:

No normal human being wants to be punished; therefore it is morally wrong to punish a human being.

Now, try to think very hard about this. The content of an argument has no bearing on its deductive validity (its structure). My example mirrors the structure of your example, so if yours is valid, then so is mine.

But I'm sure you disagree with my argument. So - what's gone wrong? Ah, it must be that 'what people want' can't be the deciding criterion for moral rightness and wrongness. And that's because people can want bad things - things that are morally wrong.

Your invented morality FSK has no moral facts. And non-moral facts can't entail moral conclusions. So your invented morality FSK is not an FSK at all - let alone a credible FSK. It's a dead duck in the water. No revival is possible.
Ad nauseam?? that is because of your own ad nauseam dogmatic ignorance.

Have you wondered how empirical facts as scientific facts and other considerations become a legal fact within a legal FSK?

E.g. It is legal fact of the USA legal FSK, that Joseph James DeAngelo Jr. was the Golden State Serial Killer.
Joseph James DeAngelo Jr. (born November 8, 1945) is an American serial killer, serial rapist, burglar, and former police officer who committed at least 13 murders, 50 rapes, and 120 burglaries across California between 1974 and 1986.

On April 24, 2018, authorities charged 72-year-old DeAngelo with eight counts of first-degree murder, based upon DNA evidence;[13][14][15] investigators had identified members of DeAngelo's family through forensic genetic genealogy.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Joseph_James_DeAngelo
The most critical criteria that confirm the legal fact Joseph James DeAngelo Jr. was the Golden State Serial Killer is based on scientific facts.
There are many other legal facts that are based heavily on the scientific facts.

But this scientific DNA evidence, other scientific evidences, and other relevant evidences were processed within a Legal FSK to arrive at a Legal Fact.
Note there a series of various processes of the legal FSK that ultimately confirmed the legal fact by a jury decision.

If you have sufficient intelligences you would be able to infer in PRINCIPLE the parallel correlation that scientific facts via the scientific FSK can be used to process moral facts via the Moral FSK.
This principle is undeniable.
The question is what are the series of the various processes within the Moral FSK that enable a moral fact to be established. I am not going into that detail which I believe I have done so in previous posts.

So,
  • 1. No normal human would want to be killed plus various scientific facts and others.
    2. The above facts are processed via the Moral FSK.
    3. Resulting Conclusion of the Moral FSK: Therefore it is morally wrong to kill a human being.
What you have always missed out deliberate is the Moral FSK with its detailed processes.

Note also, there are many cases where scientific facts within the scientific FSK are heavily depended upon to establish facts of other FSKs [technological, cosmological, weather, history, etc.]

Note this article where RM Hare justified why Slavery is Wrong based on the the Utilitarianism FSK which relied upon facts from various FSKs.
viewtopic.php?f=5&t=34282
RM Hare wrote:Utilitarianism therefore, unlike some other theories, is exposed to the facts.
The utilitarian cannot reason a priori that whatever the facts about the world and human nature, slavery is wrong.
He has to show that it is wrong by showing, through a study of history and other factual observation, that slavery does have the effects (namely the production of misery) which make it wrong.
This, though it may at first sight appear a weakness in the doctrine, is in fact its strength.
Hare relied upon his own Moral FSK which I agree with partly. My proposed Moral FSK is more extensive and detailed.

I suggest you suspend your dogmatic views [a psychological issue] and note you are ignorant and still have a long way to go to get a grip of morality in reality.
Skepdick
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Skepdick »

FlashDangerpants wrote: Mon Jan 31, 2022 2:52 pm A very, very, entirely normal thing to say about facts is that if something is a fact, then a contradiction of that fact must be false. Pete and I are using the term that way. Everyone else seems to be stuck with some eccentric notion of facts that can be contradictory but still true.


Again and again and again, everyone on this forum seems to be mindlessly trying to analyse things on the basis of nothig but what you suppose them to be made out of. Look at the function they perform....

Facts exclude contradiction, succesfully contradicted facts are not factual. This is basic to the concept of a fact. Dressing something up as some sort of "FSK" doesn't make it a systematic source of objective fact unless that FSK bullshit contains a mode of verification. This statement doesn't contain a verificationist theory of truth, it just describes how we do use the notion of fact in our language.
This is either a perfect demonstration of a total lack of meta-cognitive awareness; or total lack of intellectual transparency. Personally - I'd go with the latter.

ALL facts are perspectival. The absence of contradiction between interlocutors is evidence for consensus.The presence of contradiction is evidence for the absence of consensus.

The interaction between parties (debate, rhetoric, arguments, evidence etc.) is the consensus protocol in action. The theory of distributed consensus is this (basic) stuff they teach comp-sci undergrads. What they also teach you in undergrad comp-sci is that the leader election problem is not solvable between two disagreeing parties unless one party yields; or both parties agree on a conflict-resolution protocol they are willing to honour. Say playing rock, paper/scisors or delegating the decision to a coin.

In your defense of facts you are appealing to normative semantics which is a bandwaggon fallacy justified with a consensus theory. Talk about not fucking understanding the is-ought problem in context of language use.

Only. You do uderstand this. Which is why you doubled down on appointing yourself as the authority and enforcer on the normative meaning of "existing objectively"...
FlashDangerpants wrote: Mon Jan 31, 2022 4:28 am Sufficient criterion for objective existence would be existing objectively.
Obviously there is a social consensus THAT gravity exists objectively.
But there is no social consensus on WHY we believe that.
Peter Holmes
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

What we call facts are just features of reality that are or were the case. Outside language, reality is not linguistic - the existence and nature of things have nothing to do with language, and so nothing to do with descriptions or their truth.

What we call descriptions are contextual or perspectival. So truth-claims are always contextual or perspectival.

To say facts are contextual or perspectival is to mistake descriptions for the described, the map for the terrain, the model for the thing being modelled. The fashionable but asinine claim that 'all models are wrong, but some are useful' comes from the same delusion.

Without (necessarily flexible) rules for linguistic practice, talk of any kind about anything is impossible. Expressing an objection to the rules is pissing in the wind. What can the objection mean?
Skepdick
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Skepdick »

Peter Holmes wrote: Tue Feb 01, 2022 8:40 am What we call facts are just features of reality that are or were the case. Outside language, reality is not linguistic - the existence and nature of things have nothing to do with language, and so nothing to do with descriptions or their truth.

What we call descriptions are contextual or perspectival. So truth-claims are always contextual or perspectival.

To say facts are contextual or perspectival is to mistake descriptions for the described, the map for the terrain, the model for the thing being modelled. The fashionable but asinine claim that 'all models are wrong, but some are useful' comes from the same delusion.
Nothing you say above is inherently wrong.
Everythign you say above is inherently incomplete and misleading.

There is a perspective/context in which morality is objective
There is a perspective/context in which morality is subjective.
There is a perspective/context in which the objective/subjective distinction is meaningless.
There is a perspective/context in which the concept of subjectivity is meaningless.
There is a perspective/context in which the concept of objectivity is meaningless.

When we debate such things we are always debating over framing. We are negotiating which context/perspective to USE for interpreting the meaning of that which is outside language.

This color is red.
This color is red.
This color is red.

All of the above are valid context/perspectives for interpreting that which is outside of language: the color.
Peter Holmes wrote: Tue Feb 01, 2022 8:40 am Without (necessarily flexible) rules for linguistic practice, talk of any kind about anything is impossible. Expressing an objection to the rules is pissing in the wind. What can the objection mean?
This, on the other hand, is totally incorrect. Without the necessarily flexible rules for linguistic practice language would be useless.

The objection to the rules simply means "Your rules are not suitable for my use-case - I have invented my own, better-suited rules."
Peter Holmes
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

The fact that we have a moral opinion, which affects our behaviour, does not make that moral opinion a fact.

If it did, then it used to be a fact that slavery is not morally wrong - and it remains a fact that abortion both is and is not morally wrong.

An argument that entails a contradiction must be invalid and/or unsound. End of story. The rest is sophistry.
Skepdick
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Skepdick »

Peter Holmes wrote: Tue Feb 01, 2022 10:46 am The fact that we have a moral opinion, which affects our behaviour, does not make that moral opinion a fact.
Gravity affects the behavior of objects. That is what makes gravity a fact.

Causal effect on reality is sufficient for factuality.
Peter Holmes wrote: Tue Feb 01, 2022 10:46 am If it did, then it used to be a fact that slavery is not morally wrong - and it remains a fact that abortion both is and is not morally wrong.
Yep!

It used to be a fact that there were 6 planets in the Solar system. Then there were 7. Then 8. Now we have 8 or 9.
And it used to be a fact that murder is not morally wrong and then it became morally wrong.

The idea caught on and solidified. This idea drives and regulates the behavior of the system - it has causal effect on the behavior of objects. Therefore it is a fact.

Some of those ideas fall out of fashion for a long time and never return.
Some of those ideas oscillate quite frequently.

Facts change as knowledge changes.
Peter Holmes wrote: Tue Feb 01, 2022 10:46 am An argument that entails a contradiction must be invalid and/or unsound. End of story. The rest is sophistry.
This is a normative claim. It's just your opinion. What could possibly make this rule of rhetoric objective?

Oh, I know! The idea could catch on and solidify enough to be taken seriously to the point where it affects the behavior of the objects participating in the system!
Belinda
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Belinda »

Peter Holmes wrote: Mon Jan 31, 2022 2:12 pm
Belinda wrote: Mon Jan 31, 2022 1:59 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: Mon Jan 31, 2022 1:30 pm
I disagree, because the coherence theory of truth is not specifically a consensus theory.

(A consensus theory of truth - intersubjective or not - is ridiculous anyway, but that's a different story. And anyway, a theory of truth can be nothing more than an explanation of how we do or could use the word 'truth', its cognates and related words, such as 'falsehood'. What we mean when we say a factual assertion is true constitutes what we call truth - and that specifically excludes any idea of consensus. And words can mean only what we use them to mean.)
A theory is indeed an explanation. For some people truth does mean consensus. Truth to some other people including yourself means correspondence to a reality independent of what people mean.

If you use words too eccentrically nobody will understand you.
I agree about the problem of eccentricity. But my argument is that theorising about so-called abstract things, such as truth, is always already a mistake. Instead of doing the only thing we can rationally do - which is look at our linguistic practices - the ways we use so-called abstract nouns in different contexts - philosophers have deludedly treated abstract nouns as names of things of some kind that can be described or analysed - as in so-called conceptual analysis.

The fruit of this delusion is competing theories of fictional things such as truth. And correspondence theories of truth - or truth-maker/truth-bearer theories - are just as deluded as any others.
As a living man in full possession of your mind, you can't live your life sitting on a thin wire fence. You have to choose.
Peter Holmes
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Belinda wrote: Tue Feb 01, 2022 12:54 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: Mon Jan 31, 2022 2:12 pm
Belinda wrote: Mon Jan 31, 2022 1:59 pm

A theory is indeed an explanation. For some people truth does mean consensus. Truth to some other people including yourself means correspondence to a reality independent of what people mean.

If you use words too eccentrically nobody will understand you.
I agree about the problem of eccentricity. But my argument is that theorising about so-called abstract things, such as truth, is always already a mistake. Instead of doing the only thing we can rationally do - which is look at our linguistic practices - the ways we use so-called abstract nouns in different contexts - philosophers have deludedly treated abstract nouns as names of things of some kind that can be described or analysed - as in so-called conceptual analysis.

The fruit of this delusion is competing theories of fictional things such as truth. And correspondence theories of truth - or truth-maker/truth-bearer theories - are just as deluded as any others.
As a living man in full possession of your mind, you can't live your life sitting on a thin wire fence. You have to choose.
Have to choose what? Sitting on what fence?
Veritas Aequitas
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

@Peter Holmes, no respond to my last post??
Peter Holmes wrote: Tue Feb 01, 2022 8:40 am What we call facts are just features of reality that are or were the case. Outside language, reality is not linguistic - the existence and nature of things have nothing to do with language, and so nothing to do with descriptions or their truth.
'Reality' has nothing to do with description or the 'truth'.
So what is that "reality" really-is that is Outside Language which is not linguistic.

Point is, there is no way you can realize or get to "what reality really-is".
The only way is that you have to ASSUME such a reality exists but is absolutely independent of the human conditions, i.e. Philosophical Realism.
When you ASSUME you are banking on a illusion.
What we call descriptions are contextual or perspectival. So truth-claims are always contextual or perspectival.

To say facts are contextual or perspectival is to mistake descriptions for the described, the map for the terrain, the model for the thing being modelled. The fashionable but asinine claim that 'all models are wrong, but some are useful' comes from the same delusion.
Again what is that "thing-that" is being modelled and described with descriptions.
Since you have to assume 'that thing' which is illusory, then you are merely modelling and describing an 'assumption'. Worst still you assumption based on Philosophical Realism is a very bad assumption.
Without (necessarily flexible) rules for linguistic practice, talk of any kind about anything is impossible. Expressing an objection to the rules is pissing in the wind. What can the objection mean?
At most even with linguistic rules, you are merely using language to grapple with reality that is an ASSUMPTION which is an illusion.

OTOH, the anti-Philosophical-Realism [Kantian] start with real empirical evidences and based on a top-down approach merge human consciousness with the actual experience to realize an emergence of reality. There is no assumption here but merely basing on real empirical evidences couple with philosophical reasoning [specific FSK] to justify the realization - that is reality.
This is obviously objective and grounded on intersubjectivity.

The above principles is applicable to how to derive objective moral facts [from a credible Moral FSK] which is independent of the descriptions of such objective moral facts.
Peter Holmes
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Wed Feb 02, 2022 10:22 am @Peter Holmes, no respond to my last post??
Peter Holmes wrote: Tue Feb 01, 2022 8:40 am What we call facts are just features of reality that are or were the case. Outside language, reality is not linguistic - the existence and nature of things have nothing to do with language, and so nothing to do with descriptions or their truth.
'Reality' has nothing to do with description or the 'truth'.
So what is that "reality" really-is that is Outside Language which is not linguistic.

Point is, there is no way you can realize or get to "what reality really-is".
The only way is that you have to ASSUME such a reality exists but is absolutely independent of the human conditions, i.e. Philosophical Realism.
When you ASSUME you are banking on a illusion.
What we call descriptions are contextual or perspectival. So truth-claims are always contextual or perspectival.

To say facts are contextual or perspectival is to mistake descriptions for the described, the map for the terrain, the model for the thing being modelled. The fashionable but asinine claim that 'all models are wrong, but some are useful' comes from the same delusion.
Again what is that "thing-that" is being modelled and described with descriptions.
Since you have to assume 'that thing' which is illusory, then you are merely modelling and describing an 'assumption'. Worst still you assumption based on Philosophical Realism is a very bad assumption.
Without (necessarily flexible) rules for linguistic practice, talk of any kind about anything is impossible. Expressing an objection to the rules is pissing in the wind. What can the objection mean?
At most even with linguistic rules, you are merely using language to grapple with reality that is an ASSUMPTION which is an illusion.

OTOH, the anti-Philosophical-Realism [Kantian] start with real empirical evidences and based on a top-down approach merge human consciousness with the actual experience to realize an emergence of reality. There is no assumption here but merely basing on real empirical evidences couple with philosophical reasoning [specific FSK] to justify the realization - that is reality.
This is obviously objective and grounded on intersubjectivity.

The above principles is applicable to how to derive objective moral facts [from a credible Moral FSK] which is independent of the descriptions of such objective moral facts.
What exactly is the reality-that-really-is to which we can have no access? And what evidence is there for its existence?

Why is the dog sleeping in front of my fire an illusion? And how can we have 'real empirical evidence' of an illusion?

This is mystical claptrap.
Belinda
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Belinda »

Peter Holmes wrote: Wed Feb 02, 2022 8:28 am
Belinda wrote: Tue Feb 01, 2022 12:54 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: Mon Jan 31, 2022 2:12 pm
I agree about the problem of eccentricity. But my argument is that theorising about so-called abstract things, such as truth, is always already a mistake. Instead of doing the only thing we can rationally do - which is look at our linguistic practices - the ways we use so-called abstract nouns in different contexts - philosophers have deludedly treated abstract nouns as names of things of some kind that can be described or analysed - as in so-called conceptual analysis.

The fruit of this delusion is competing theories of fictional things such as truth. And correspondence theories of truth - or truth-maker/truth-bearer theories - are just as deluded as any others.
As a living man in full possession of your mind, you can't live your life sitting on a thin wire fence. You have to choose.
Have to choose what? Sitting on what fence?
For some people truth does mean consensus. Truth to some other people including yourself means correspondence to a reality independent of what people mean.
You need to choose which you believe, as the alternative is to do what someone else tells you.
Belinda
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Joined: Fri Aug 26, 2016 10:13 am

Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Belinda »

Peter Holmes wrote: Wed Feb 02, 2022 12:13 pm
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Wed Feb 02, 2022 10:22 am @Peter Holmes, no respond to my last post??
Peter Holmes wrote: Tue Feb 01, 2022 8:40 am What we call facts are just features of reality that are or were the case. Outside language, reality is not linguistic - the existence and nature of things have nothing to do with language, and so nothing to do with descriptions or their truth.
'Reality' has nothing to do with description or the 'truth'.
So what is that "reality" really-is that is Outside Language which is not linguistic.

Point is, there is no way you can realize or get to "what reality really-is".
The only way is that you have to ASSUME such a reality exists but is absolutely independent of the human conditions, i.e. Philosophical Realism.
When you ASSUME you are banking on a illusion.
What we call descriptions are contextual or perspectival. So truth-claims are always contextual or perspectival.

To say facts are contextual or perspectival is to mistake descriptions for the described, the map for the terrain, the model for the thing being modelled. The fashionable but asinine claim that 'all models are wrong, but some are useful' comes from the same delusion.
Again what is that "thing-that" is being modelled and described with descriptions.
Since you have to assume 'that thing' which is illusory, then you are merely modelling and describing an 'assumption'. Worst still you assumption based on Philosophical Realism is a very bad assumption.
Without (necessarily flexible) rules for linguistic practice, talk of any kind about anything is impossible. Expressing an objection to the rules is pissing in the wind. What can the objection mean?
At most even with linguistic rules, you are merely using language to grapple with reality that is an ASSUMPTION which is an illusion.

OTOH, the anti-Philosophical-Realism [Kantian] start with real empirical evidences and based on a top-down approach merge human consciousness with the actual experience to realize an emergence of reality. There is no assumption here but merely basing on real empirical evidences couple with philosophical reasoning [specific FSK] to justify the realization - that is reality.
This is obviously objective and grounded on intersubjectivity.

The above principles is applicable to how to derive objective moral facts [from a credible Moral FSK] which is independent of the descriptions of such objective moral facts.
What exactly is the reality-that-really-is to which we can have no access? And what evidence is there for its existence?

Why is the dog sleeping in front of my fire an illusion? And how can we have 'real empirical evidence' of an illusion?

This is mystical claptrap.
The dog sleeping in front of your fire is not an illusion for you but it is an illusion for someone else who sees his next meal ready to hand.
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