RogerSH wrote: ↑Sun Aug 22, 2021 6:13 pm
...can we agree that continuity, if not a cause in itself, is a necessary part of causal explanation...
Yes. We can agree it's a
precondition, not a cause. And even as a condition, we can only go so far as to agree it's
necessary; but there's no justification in anybody concluding that it's
sufficient. In fact, identity is not even a
weak case of causality; it's not causality
at all.
Please bear in mind that my references to causality/determinism do not assume discrete chains of causes
Of course. I thought we were already assuming that.
But complexity does not change the basic dynamic in any way. If material cause-and-effect is all that's in view, then nothing but cause-and-effect is in view, even if we diagram it as a sort of "web" rather than as a simple line. It's still just one dynamic.
But what I'm pointing out is that it's misleading to say they "must have arisen out of something that was already in your mind." Because stuff that's "in a mind" is not "in material reality" the way that, say, neurochemicals are.
I do mean in a mental sense. Stuff like ideas, impressions, hunches, feelings. So how can that be misleading?
I would argue that's
not misleading. But it is Dualistic.
You've now got two kinds of "causes": material "causes," and mental "causes." And the latter is not being subsumed into the category of the former, so you have mind-material Dualism there.
Either some element of consciousness has a (present or earlier) cause or combination of any number of contributory causes, in which case each such cause is either something that was in the mind before or something external, or it arrives in consciousness for no reason at all. Each case has implications.
Well, let's eliminate the explanation "for no reason at all," because it's both ambiguous and misleading. Can something in a mind be "caused" by a prior mental state, or does it have to be "caused" by materials? If it can be "caused" in a way that does NOT eventually invoke strict Materialism, then you are a Dualist. You are then saying that mind, without reference to materials, is capable of initiating a causal chain.
That is the crucial contest point against Determinism.
In creativity, for example, the creative mind imagines [1] something new, or [2] a new combination of things already known, but one that has not yet existed anywhere.
These are two significantly different cases [numbering added]. I am assuming for the sake of argument that case [1] doesn’t occur:
I don't see the warrant for that assumption, I must confess. Maybe you can tell me.
...that every apparently new idea is in fact an unconscious combination of ideas already known to the mind concerned, and asking what the implications would be. (First implication: there would still be room for creativity, as shown by case [2].
Not only "room," but definite creativity. For it is not inherent to creativity that it must come
ex nihilo, using no resources from the material world at all. Picasso used paint: he did not produce paint
ex nihilo; but that does not mean that "paint" is the sufficent explanation of
Guernica. In fact, as an explanation, that's pretty useless.
...let us assume that dualism is correct, how can that rule out the possibility that the mind, together with its inputs from and actions upon the material world, acts in a deterministic way?
I think we can see that material explanations are not adequate for a phenomenon like
Guernica. They're not utterly wrong,
per se, but just so desperately trival, so entirely inadequate to the phenomenon they attempt to describe that they are just not plausible, just not informative, just not useful.
"Picasso painted the way he did because...paint." If we say that, that's a lousy kind of explanation, and I don't think it takes any special wisdom to see that it is.
The whole of the nature & state of Picasso’s mind before the Spanish civil war plus the whole of his experience in the interim, such as his awareness of the events at Guernica, was a necessary condition for the whole of the nature & state of his mind when he began his painting of it, and hence for his ability to come up with it, I think we agree.
Yes, of course. But there you are not appealing to
material things, but to
mind things. You say "Picasso's experience" and "state of mind," and "awareness," and so on. Those are decidedly part of the right explanation; but they are not strictly materials. They're mind states.
How can you rule out the possibility that it was also a sufficient condition?
Pretty easily, actually.
Do you accept the postulate that
Guernica was a product of nothing but materials, with no mind states bieng invoked? Of course not. Above, you don't, in fact. That would be a laughably reductional explanation, sort of like the "paint" explanation. So I think we both see the basis of rejecting that.
But in point of fact, the burden of proof is on the person who is the Determinist. Because the natural and obvious explanation, the one most people use all the time, is that Picasso's mind was special, and his creativity was unique to his being Picasso. And we all naturally refer to mind-states in any plausible explanation, not just of Picasso but especially of our own actions and decisions. Mind-states are universally treated as causative. And it takes a real feat of mental gymnastics to convince ourselves that they might not be, a feat we are not even able to sustain for long. We naturally lapse back into mind-cause explanations.
So the burden's on the Determinist to say that all our intuitions about that are just plain wrong, and how he knows they are, and to show how he is justified in positing mere material causes in their place.
I’m not saying that was the case, just that the world wouldn’t obviously look any different if it was, and we don’t know enough about how the mind works to rule this possibility out.
Maybe. But if that's the case, then the default would be to mind explanations. And again, it would be on the Determinist to prove his case; because nobody really acts as if Determinism is true. Even you don't, since you're discussing with me. What would be the use, if strict Determinism were true?
If everything is part of the original Divine plan, isn’t that a different kind of predetermination?
Not necessarily. It could be: there are people called "Calvinists" who think it is. But most Theists think not, and with good reason. An omnipotent God is surely not incapable of endowing creatures with free will.
God could, for example, have enough power to force people to do nothing but His predetermined will,
if he were to choose to do that; but He could choose to allow them volition instead.
And which is more powerful: a "god" who
can't deal with the volition of his creatures, or One who
can?

Is God greater if he can foresee every possible choice in a matrix or "web" of choices, and have wisdom to deal with them all, or is a "god" greater if he can only handle one line of determinations at a time and loses track of anything more complex?
That's pretty obvious, isn't it?
How can free will then be possible? I can understand three possible answers:
Mabye. But my answer above doesn't fit any of the ABC options you offered. So there's another possibility.
It seems to me that the rest of your post is more to do with dualism, and specifically theistic dualism, than with free will.
Well, free will implies Dualism. There's no separating the two, really. So I don't think it's a shift in subject.
If I may, I'll get back to you on the "responsibility" question when I've had time to check out the link and give it some further thought.
Thanks for your thoughts, Roger.