Terrapin Station wrote: ↑Sat Feb 20, 2021 2:55 pm
Veritas Aequitas wrote: ↑Sat Feb 20, 2021 6:21 am
I don't agree with (2).
The physical referent of normatives are universal in all humans, thus the same for all people.
For many commonly held "oughts" I'm a "different person."--I have a lot of unusual moral views. And for almost all others, I know some "different people"
Perhaps you want to retract or edit the above post?
Ah--I didn't remember typing exactly that, and it didn't make sense to me out of context.
Re the context: I was explaining to Skepdick that morality isn't morality (a la what the vast majority of people are talking about/doing with respect to what they're naming "morality") if we're not talking about normatives. He said "Morality is the collective effort of ensuring the continued human survival and improved human wellbeing. Morality is about constructing a hospitable environment . . ." So using his own wording (which is one thing that threw me off--that's not wording I'd ever use on my own; I used it because I was repeating it back to him), I was trying to say, although I didn't make this explicit enough, that the very idea of "ensuring human survival" has an "embedded" "ought" in it, because logically, one has to think or feel that "We
ought to ensure human survival" in order to be focused on that. Otherwise one would be neutral about ensuring human survival or one might even think "We ought to NOT ensure human survival."
Based on what you wrote, the embedded ought/should as embedded via the DNA/RNA,
No, no, that's nothing like what I was saying. I was saying that
logically, "Morality is the effort of ensuring continued human survival . . . well-being" etc. implies that one is thinking normatives a la "We OUGHT to ensure human survival," "We OUGHT to ensure well-being," "Such and such OUGHT to count as well-being," etc. One could just as well think, "We OUGHT to NOT ensure human survival" and so on (and some people do think that).
If you insist otherwise, so be it.
then all normal people will act from the same based of ought/should thus will not feel differently.
Only the abnormal [psychiatric cases] will feel differently.
There's nothing normative about statistical normalcy. You keep assuming that there is.
We don't equate statistic normalcy with normative directly.
Note the meaning of 'normative'
Normative generally means relating to an evaluative standard. Normativity is the phenomenon in human societies of designating some actions or outcomes as good or desirable or permissible and others as bad or undesirable or impermissible. A norm in this normative sense means a standard for evaluating or making judgments about behavior or outcomes.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Normative
In this case, we have to verify and justify whatever has statistic normalcy qualify to be a normative as defined above.
That is because you don't have necessary depth in the neurosciences to understand the above.
Holy crap are you continually patronizing, lol. Would you like to compare our academic backgrounds?
I inferred that from what you posted re the lack of using such knowledge.
For philosophy sake, academic background is not critical. At present, academic philosophy is being condemned from all corners.
What is critical are the arguments you provide at present and the sufficiency of knowledge to back up those arguments.
Btw, do you have a degree is neuroscience?
The opposite of surviving is death.
And?
Again, this has absolutely nothing to do with normatives.
Note the definition of 'normative' above;
"...of designating some actions or outcomes as good or desirable or permissible and others as bad or undesirable or impermissible."
Who are you to insist 'avoiding death to survive' is not good or desirable.
As explained above, the above oughtness to survive implies avoiding premature death
There is no ought to "avoiding premature death."
As I had argued this can be verified and justified empirically and philosophically within a moral FSK, note 'moral' not any other FSK.
and that is a fact of human nature.
It might be a statistical norm, but STATISTICAL NORMS DO NOT IMPLY NORMATIVES. To suggest that they do is to fall to the argumentum ad populum fallacy. You keep simply assuming that statistical norms imply normatives, but they don't. It's simply falling prey to a tendency to be conformist.
Note the definition of 'normative' and avoiding premature death is good or desirable, else there are pains when one sense the threat of death.