Of course.
Well, to think that makes us Aristotelians would be to make the genetic fallacy. We're not.Aristotle was the first philosopher to formulate a Cosmological argument.
You're absolutely right. There is no such thing as an actual infinite regress. And that's the start of the mathematical argument for the existence of God. I see you have a little familiarity with the particulars, so I won't go over the whole thing.So, how does an infinite regress prove the existence of God? As far as I know an infinite regress is a fallacy. It is like an elephant holding up the world while standing on top of a giant turtle. We then ask what is holding up the giant turtle? The answer is, of course, another giant turtle. If we ask what is holding up that turtle the answer becomes another giant turtle. It is turtles all they way down and so on ad infinitum. The fallacy occurs when we rely on itself for its own explanation.
Really there are only two things one has to know: firstly, that time is linear, not cyclical; and that's empirically evident, so that part's easy. The second thing you need to know is the idea of causality...and of chains of cause and effect. Again, the evidence of the existence of such is empirical, so that's also easy. But if both are true, then it is impossible to have an infinitely regressing chain of causes. Such a chain, if we were on one, would never have gotten started -- and that's very easy to demonstrate mathematically.
But we are on a finite causal chain. So there must have been a starting point for that causal chain. But whatever started the chain cannot itself have a cause; because if it did, we'd have infinite regress again. So we know, whether we're secularists or Theists, that the linear, causal sequence of time had to have an uncaused starting point.
What could that be? That's the next part of the question. But I'll pause there, to see if you're with me so far.
Done.If you don't believe me read the Republic.