No, it doesn't, actually.surreptitious57 wrote: ↑Tue Feb 11, 2020 5:18 pm The Universal Declaration Of Human Rights applies to all human beings
If Hume is right, then the best we can say about it is that it's an arbitrary declaration so weak that the UN (which doesn't have any army or police force) can't even enforce it in areas as small as the Palestinian Territories, where they most certainly do not agree with it. Then we can more easily list off the countries that DON'T recognize that declaration in practice than we can list those that do. Human rights, as an idea, is an anomaly worldwide.
They don't, according to Humean logic.So there is no imposition on anyone because everyone has those rights
There's no way, as per Hume, to show that they do. They don't have those rights in practice, and they don't have them in the theory of the lands in question. So in what sense do they "have" them, then?