devans99 wrote: ↑Tue Nov 27, 2018 12:46 pm
Exactly, so what you did in your 'proof' was not valid. Just because two things are equal when x=∞ does not mean they are equal for x=other values
So WHY was it NOT VALID?
Point out the EXACT ERROR IN REASONING. Highlight it.
IF lim x->∞ (1/x) = lim x->∞ ( 2/x)
FROM THE LIMIT LAWS IT FOLLOWS
∴ 1/x = 2/x
∴ 1 = 2
devans99 wrote: ↑Tue Nov 27, 2018 12:52 pm
IF lim x->∞ (1/x) = lim x->∞ ( 2/x)
FROM THE LIMIT LAWS IT FOLLOWS - *** NO IN DOES NOT FOLLOW ***
∴ 1/x = 2/x
∴ 1 = 2
lim x->∞ (1/x) = lim x->∞ ( 2/x)
DOES NOT IMPLY
1/x = 2/x
IF f(x) = c and f(y) = c
∴ f(x) = f(y)
No not in general. You have evaluated f(x) and f(y) for specific values of y and x. That does not mean they are equal for all values of x and y.
∴ x = y
devans99 wrote: ↑Tue Nov 27, 2018 12:59 pm
No not in general. You have evaluated f(x) and f(y) for specific values of y and x. That does not mean they are equal for all values of x and y.
OK, lets examine the particular then:
f(x) = 1/x
g(x) = 2/x
Can you think of any x (for x in the set of real numbers) where f(x) or g(x) cannot be evaluated?
The only problem is 0, right? And since we are dealing with lim x->∞ and ∞ != 0
devans99 wrote: ↑Tue Nov 27, 2018 12:59 pm
No not in general. You have evaluated f(x) and f(y) for specific values of y and x. That does not mean they are equal for all values of x and y.
OK, lets examine the particular then:
f(x) = 1/x
g(x) = 2/x
Can you think of any x (for X in the set of real numbers) where f(x) or g(x) cannot be evaluated?
The only problem is 0, right? So I guess it is true in general, except where x=0 ?
f(x) <> g(x) for all x apart from infinity. It undefined at 0.