You mean I may violate YOUR logic, not the one almost everyone else is using in philosophy.TimeSeeker wrote: ↑Fri Nov 09, 2018 11:15 amBecause I am correcting your USE of logic? Logic has properties and rules (soundness, completeness, consistency, confluence and many others). You are violating them. I am pointing out the errors and pointing out corrective measures (for you to consider or ignore).
Logic is just a tool. What you are USING logic FOR that's about teleology.
But if you are USING logic incorrectly, you are unlikely to achieve whatever it is you have set out to achieve.
Be it "arguing about metaphysics" or real-world reasoning in general...
The Neural Basis of NonDuality
Re: The Neural Basis of NonDuality
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TimeSeeker
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Re: The Neural Basis of NonDuality
Yes. The one everyone else is using in philosophy (Aristotelian logic) is demonstrably broken.
Everything you can express in Aristotelian logic can also be expressed in Modal logic, or Temporal logic or Temporal Type Theory.
The reverse is not true. Because Aristotelian logic lacks the necessary semantics to construct modal temporal or typed phenomena!
Backwards compatibility, you see? A more generally applicable tool is better. Like a Swiss army knife!
Last edited by TimeSeeker on Fri Nov 09, 2018 11:26 am, edited 1 time in total.
Re: The Neural Basis of NonDuality
You haven't demonstrated that it's broken for philosophy, nor did I agree to use your logic. I find it nonsensical in philosophy.TimeSeeker wrote: ↑Fri Nov 09, 2018 11:24 amThe one everyone else is using in philosophy (Aristotelian logic) is demonstrably broken.
Everything you can express in Aristotelian logic can also be expressed in Modal logic, or Temporal logic or Temporal Type Theory.
The reverse is not true. Because Aristotelian logic lacks the necessary semantics to construct the argument.
You haven't shown anything wrong with my comments so far, not even once.
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TimeSeeker
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Re: The Neural Basis of NonDuality
Ahhhh, so you are USING logic FOR philosophy? Teleology!!!!
And you accuse me of being an "intellectual fraud"
Can you enlighten me on what the objective goals of philosophy are?
How do I know if I am doing "philosophy" right?
Re: The Neural Basis of NonDuality
How did we go from classical logic to teleology/objective goals?TimeSeeker wrote: ↑Fri Nov 09, 2018 11:29 amAhhhh, so you are USING logic FOR philosophy? Teleology!!!!
And you accuse me of being an "intellectual fraud"![]()
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Can you enlighten me on what the objective goals of philosophy are?
How do I know if I am doing "philosophy" right?
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TimeSeeker
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Re: The Neural Basis of NonDuality
For philosophy.TimeSeeker wrote: ↑Fri Nov 09, 2018 11:31 amYou are USING classical logic. Are you not? What re you USING classical logic for?
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TimeSeeker
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Re: The Neural Basis of NonDuality
OK. So you are USING classical logic FOR philosophy.
Then philosophy is your teleology. Your end goal.
Re: The Neural Basis of NonDuality
No it's not. There is no end goal.TimeSeeker wrote: ↑Fri Nov 09, 2018 11:33 amOK. So you are USING classical logic FOR philosophy.Atla wrote: ↑Fri Nov 09, 2018 11:31 amFor philosophy.TimeSeeker wrote: ↑Fri Nov 09, 2018 11:31 am
You are USING classical logic. Are you not? What re you USING classical logic for?
Then philosophy is your teleology. Your end goal.
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TimeSeeker
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Re: The Neural Basis of NonDuality
You do understand the context in which the word "FOR" is used in the English language, right? https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/for
By USING the word "FOR" you are IMPLYING that "philosophy" IS the purpose e.g end goal.a—used as a function word to indicate purpose
b —used as a function word to indicate an intended goal
c —used as a function word to indicate the object or recipient of a perception, desire, or activity
Why are you using classical logic FOR philosophy? Would it not make FOR better philosophising if a more modern logic was to be used?
Classical logic is 3000 years old...
You are so lost in your own mental muddle that you can't recognise that "philosophy" is an activity. And logic is its instrument.
Unless you were meaning to say "USING classical logic FOR lip service WITHOUT an end goal whatsoever IS philosophy"?
And IF philosophy has no end-goal or rules then how did you determine that my logic "doesn't work" ?
Re: The Neural Basis of NonDuality
Everyone except you already knows that "philosophy" isn't an end goal in itself.TimeSeeker wrote: ↑Fri Nov 09, 2018 11:42 amYou do understand the context in which the word "FOR" is used in the English language, right? https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/forAtla wrote: ↑Fri Nov 09, 2018 11:33 amNo it's not. There is no end goal.TimeSeeker wrote: ↑Fri Nov 09, 2018 11:33 am
OK. So you are USING classical logic FOR philosophy.
Then philosophy is your teleology. Your end goal.By USING the word "FOR" you are IMPLYING that "philosophy" IS the purpose e.g end goal.a—used as a function word to indicate purpose
b —used as a function word to indicate an intended goal
c —used as a function word to indicate the object or recipient of a perception, desire, or activity
Why are you using classical logic FOR philosophy? Would it not make FOR better philosophising if a better logic was to be used?
You are so lost in your own muddle that you can't recognise that "philosophy" is an activity. And logic is its instrument.
Unless you were meaning to say "USING classical logic FOR lip service WITHOUT an end goal whatsoever IS philosophy"?
And IF philosophy has no end-goal or rules then how did you determine that my logic "doesn't work" ?
You show a profound inability to properly process context.
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TimeSeeker
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Re: The Neural Basis of NonDuality
Everybody but you knows that "philosophy" isn't a THING! It's a colloquial phrase for a general activity that has no objective rules.
And so if philosophy is not a goal and it has no goal then it has no context!
RULES CREATE CONTEXT.
You show profound inability to recognize that without rules (criteria, AUTHORITY!) for what is and isn't "philosophy" then anything goes!
What do I USE philosophy for? Practicing rhetoric.
Re: The Neural Basis of NonDuality
I never claimed in any way that philosophy is a "thing". You show an inability to properly process context.TimeSeeker wrote: ↑Fri Nov 09, 2018 11:47 amEverybody but you knows that "philosophy" isn't a THING! It's a colloquial phrase for a general activity that has no objective rules.
And so if philosophy is not a goal and it has no goal then it has no context!
RULES CREATE CONTEXT.
You show profound inability to recognize that without rules (criteria) for what is and isn't "philosophy" then anything goes!
What do I USE philosophy for? Practicing rhetoric.
Your other accusations are also completely random and nonsensical.
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TimeSeeker
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Re: The Neural Basis of NonDuality
SO you are using classical logic for NO thing?Atla wrote: ↑Fri Nov 09, 2018 11:50 amI never claimed in any way that philosophy is a "thing". You show an inability to properly process context.TimeSeeker wrote: ↑Fri Nov 09, 2018 11:47 amEverybody but you knows that "philosophy" isn't a THING! It's a colloquial phrase for a general activity that has no objective rules.
And so if philosophy is not a goal and it has no goal then it has no context!
RULES CREATE CONTEXT.
You show profound inability to recognize that without rules (criteria) for what is and isn't "philosophy" then anything goes!
What do I USE philosophy for? Practicing rhetoric.
Your other accusations are also completely random and nonsensical.
Atla wrote: ↑Fri Nov 09, 2018 11:31 amFor philosophy.TimeSeeker wrote: ↑Fri Nov 09, 2018 11:31 am You are USING classical logic. Are you not? What re you USING classical logic for?
Naturally. You lack the knowledge to make sense of them.
It's ok. Maybe one day you'll be less dumb.
Re: The Neural Basis of NonDuality
No, you just state some obvious things, thinking I don't know them, while not actually understanding them yourself.TimeSeeker wrote: ↑Fri Nov 09, 2018 11:51 amNaturally. You lack the knowledge to make sense of them.Atla wrote: ↑Fri Nov 09, 2018 11:50 amI never claimed in any way that philosophy is a "thing". You show an inability to properly process context.TimeSeeker wrote: ↑Fri Nov 09, 2018 11:47 am
Everybody but you knows that "philosophy" isn't a THING! It's a colloquial phrase for a general activity that has no objective rules.
And so if philosophy is not a goal and it has no goal then it has no context!
RULES CREATE CONTEXT.
You show profound inability to recognize that without rules (criteria) for what is and isn't "philosophy" then anything goes!
What do I USE philosophy for? Practicing rhetoric.
Your other accusations are also completely random and nonsensical.
It's ok. Maybe one day you'll be less dumb.
And no, context is not only created by rules - that claim shows your inability to properly process context.