fiveredapples wrote:1st Argument -- Water Boarding is not torture
I will have to ask you some clarifying questions first, and await your response to ALL of My questions, before I would even begin to agree with and accept your attempt at this "argument".
fiveredapples wrote:1. Torture involves 'intent to harm', where 'harm' must be specified as a certain severe and long-lasting or permanent damage.
So, to you, 'torture' has two aspects;
a) 'Intent to harm'
b) The 'harm'
must cause a certain severe and long-lasting or permanent damage.
a) Do you KNOW, for sure, what the actual intent was of the people who were doing the water boarding?
If you say, "No", then just maybe they were intending to do harm. I do NOT know what the intention of the people doing the water boarding was, so just
maybe they were intending to do harm, and/or even a lot of harm in the process, thus just maybe they were torturing the "other" people.
If, however, you say, "Yes", then how do you KNOW?
b) What does 'certain severe damage' contain and/or mean to you? How do YOU define 'certain severe damage'? What does the word 'certain' actually mean in 'certain severe damage'? How 'severe' exactly is in 'severe damage'? What 'damage' is needed before it becomes torture?
And, how long is 'long-lasting'?
fiveredapples wrote:2. The CIA Water Boarding (of which there has been three cases only) has not caused 'harm' to any of the three KNOWN TERRORISTS we water boarded.
How do you KNOW that no harm was caused?
Do you personally KNOW the three KNOWN HUMAN BEINGS who were water boarded?
If you say, "Yes", then did they tell you personally that no harm was caused, and if they did, are you able to trust them 100%?
If you say, "No", then HOW would you KNOW if any harm and/or how much harm was caused or not caused?
Also, why did you use the word 'we' in 'we water boarded'?
fiveredapples wrote:3. It's very unreasonable to infer that the CIA had an 'intent to harm' when there was no actual harm
Again HOW do you KNOW there was no actual harm? I, for one, certainly do NOT know either way.
Also, besides the fact that IF no harm was caused, then that in of itself does NOT provide any indication of what 'intent' there was in the beginning. There obviously was an 'intent', but what it actually was would only be KNOWN by the instigators and/or the ones doing the water boarding. There could have by all means been an 'intent to harm'. I was NOT there so I do NOT know what the intent was or was not. Were you there at the time of the water boarding? Were you one of the ones doing the water boarding?
fiveredapples wrote:4. The CIA did not intend to harm
Do you really believe that by just making a statement, like this one, all by itself, with absolutely nothing else, makes the statement true in any way, shape, or form?
fiveredapples wrote:Conclusion: CIA Water Boarding is not torture
Is "cia" water boarding different than "other" water boarding?
If you say, "Yes", then how exactly?
And, does that mean, from your perspective, "other" water boarding could actually be torture while "cia's" is not torture?
If you say, "No", then does that mean, from your perspective, ALL water boarding is NOT torture?
I would just like to suggest also that water boarding is done by human beings, and not by companies nor institutions, and human beings CAN do things intentionally, without others ever knowing what the real intent was or is. I would also like to suggest that just how severe the actual damage is, which was done, and, just how long-lasting the damage was for, which was done, would NOT really be known by any other person than the one who was water boarded. And, how long-lasting the damage was for would not really be known until on one's death bed.
fiveredapples wrote:You could also run this argument on the premise that torture involves 'harm' (again, the relevant kind) and that the CIA water boarding didn't 'harm' any of the three KNOWN TERRORISTS, so CIA water boarding isn't torture.
YOU could also TRY to run this argument on this premise you propose here BUT we are still stuck in the same position of HOW do you KNOW, for sure, no 'harm' was caused?
Also, 'harm' ("the relevant kind", which if you stopped to think about this has absolutely no meaning at all), anyhow, the 'harm' is being relevant to who, exactly?
I am pretty sure the relevant 'harm' being done could be on the opposite ends of the spectrum when looked at from the one doing the 'harm' compared to when looked at from the one being 'harmed'.
Would you, do you, have the exact same view of water boarding not being torture, and the relevant 'harm' done or not done, if it was, let us say, "others", from the other side of the world or from another religion, who were water boarding those people who, let us say, work for the cia themselves? Would "their" water boarding instantly be torture now, or do you hold the same view that water boarding is NOT torture?
fiveredapples wrote:My response was that his definition -- by the examples he gave -- didn't fit the definition of harm for torture.
Remember that this is YOUR definition of 'torture'. It is NOT an accepted and agreed upon definition.
fiveredapples wrote:Basically, if I step on your foot once, I have not tortured you -- although I have caused you harm -- even if I have restrained you and prevented you from avoiding my stepping on your foot. Commonsense tells us that torture requires a little bit more severe harm than having your foot stepped on -- not mashed by an elephant (<--before you start carping me).
But I thought you said in premise 1. that one aspect of torture involves 'intent to harm'. Did you intend to harm the human being who's foot you stepped on or not?
If you said, "Yes I did", then that fulfills part 1 of
YOUR 'torture' definition.
If you said, "No I did not", then I am not really sure how trust worthy you are. You have just admitted that even if you had caused harm and had done this by restraining the human being, so preventing them from avoiding you stepping on their foot, I, for one anyhow, would still wonder what your intent was if it was as you say NOT to harm them. Why would you do such a thing?
Now, to the second aspect of YOUR definition for 'torture'. YOU say, 'harm' IS specified as a certain severe and long-lasting or permanent damage. What happens after you step on a human beings foot, which you did on purpose by the way, and also did by first restraining them so they could not stop you, and some bones are harmed in their foot, now you lock them up in a prison cell and do not give them proper medical attention to heal the damage. After some time the foot has not healed properly. The human being is left not able to function as good as they could before, for the rest of their lives. Is this a 'harm' that is specified as being a certain severe and long-lasting or permanent damage harm? Or, does this 'harm' still not fit
YOUR criteria?
If it is the former, then you have just fulfilled both criteria needed for 'torture'.
If it is the latter, then what
exactly does 'harm' entail?
By the way, when you are the one doing the restraining and the stomping on the foot of another human being do you think the criteria for 'intent of harm' and for 'harm' itself would differ in any way if it was you who was the one who was being restrained AND being stomped on?
fiveredapples wrote: Alas, I must go to work soon.
Just wondering, what does a qualified and, self-labelled, "superior philosopher" such as yourself actually do for work?
In short this is YOUR argument;
P1: Torture involves 'intent to harm', where 'harm' must be specified as a certain severe and long-lasting or permanent damage.
P2: The CIA Water Boarding (of which there has been three cases only) has not caused 'harm' to any of the three KNOWN TERRORISTS we water boarded.
P3: It's very unreasonable to infer that the CIA had an 'intent to harm' when there was no actual harm.
p4: The CIA did not intend to harm.
Conclusion: CIA Water Boarding is not torture.
In short, this is My response to your argument. To Me, this is just an obvious case of coming to or jumping to a conclusion, and believing in that conclusion, before looking at the facts, and then "trying" to find anything that will fit in with and support the already gained conclusion and belief.
P1:
a) No one can KNOW, for sure, the intent of another. Unless of course human beings can be trusted 100%, and trusted 100% of the time, to tell the absolute and whole truth and nothing but the truth always. So, 'intent to harm' or not may never-ever really be truly known.
b) YOUR definition of 'torture' and/or 'harm' is NOT an accepted and agreed upon definition. So, anything you say regarding this is just YOUR subjective view on the matter.
P2: You can NOT know, for sure, what harm has been caused or not unless you are the one who has been water boarded, yourself.
Also, labeling the human beings who were water boarded as "KNOWN TERRORISTS" is just an attempt to get people on "your side". It is just emotive language trying to persuade others that if you are not on "my" or "our" side, then you must be on the "other's" side. The use of the word 'we' was also an attempt at the same thing. Further to this using language in a subliminal way to trick or persuade people to follow you was also done with the use of the word '
only' in "there has been three cases only". As if because the "cia"
only did it three times, then it is not really that bad, AND, since it was
only done to "three KNOWN TERRORISTS, then really it is not bad at all. This kind of idea and use of language in trying to obtain support is obvious at the best and stupid at the worst.
As for trying to suggest that you KNOW no harm was caused is about as closed or as stupid as a belief one can get.
P3: What is more unreasonable is that you expect all of us to accept that you somehow KNOW the whole truth of what happened and is continuing to happen to these human beings who were water boarded.
p4: If the cia did not intend to harm, as you allege is the case, of which I am still baffled as how you would KNOW what the cia is up to, but anyway what do you propose the cia were intending to do if they were not intending to harm?
What ever your answer comes back as, how do you propose they were obtain what they were intending to obtain if they did NOT intend to do harm?
Conclusion: Just for your information your conclusion might be correct. I have NO view either way.