Note: I would use happiness and pleasure interchangeable even though they could mean different things at different times.
Happiness is an elusive entity, for it has evaded even those philosophers who had spent a considerable amount of their lives catching it in action. Our present notion of happiness is nothing more than just an outcome of our perception. The believes that we have about our notion of happiness is without any solid proof (ingrained in any scientific form) and there is nothing more than just a perception based proof that makes us believe in our current notion of happiness. Such frail is our understanding of happiness upon which we have created and composed the greatest of human forts and tower.
(here's an interesting thing. Try to persuade me into believing your (conventional) notion of happiness if you do not agree with me.)
Now, let me direct the flow of arguments towards a different set of ideas. Evolution!
We all know that evolution is what is responsible for the different kinds of highly evolved and specific types and kinds of animals and plants that we see around us. There are several ways in which evolution can work and lead to the domination of one species over the other. I wouldn't delve into explaining them here, but I hope my audience has a somewhat clear idea about evolution.
Happiness, I believe, has an evolutionary origin. (Scientists haven't yet proven it, so it is just an assumption, but a very probably veracious assumption.) I am sure you would all agree that happiness (a.k.a pleasure) is related to motivation. In fact, the intensity of pleasure is directly related to the strength of motivation. For example: if object A gives you pleasure, you would be attracted to it, and the strength of this attraction is directly proportional to the intensity of the pleasure. So, if there are two objects A and B, and B happens to provide more pleasure than B, then an individual would be more attracted to B than A. Fair enough, i guess, right?
Now, back to the point: Happiness played a crucial role in evolution as it dictated as to what level would an individual be attracted (or repelled, in case of pain) to a stimuli. If an organism had a very high potential for happiness, it would be inevitably stuck to a stimuli (as many kids these days are to the stimuli of porn
Now, if we all fall in the optimal happiness level (all humans, i mean) then there should not be any difference in the amount of happiness that we perceive. This means that all humans should perceive the same amount of happiness, though through different sources and in different intensities.
I know it sounds a little offish, and I think I haven't given very convincing arguments in support of it. So, let me strengthen my case by giving a few more offbeat arguments.
1. Happiness is relative. Two people can't be said to perceive the same amount of happiness unless they have the same history and the same physical and genetic makeup. In other words, No two people can have the same amount of pleasure from the same external stimuli that each of them are exposed to.
For example: A poor man and a millionaire are gifted an Tuxedo. but, beneath the left pocket of the Tux, there is a tiny hole. The poor man is happy for he has a Tux and the millionaire is unhappy because he received a Tux with a hole. Even if we compare the poor man with another poor man, we wouldn't expect them to have the same experience of happiness for this or other subsequent events.
2. Happiness can be said to have a potential. I call this, the barrier to happiness. Let's say we have an absolute scale of happiness and then, we denote a barrier value to each person on the basis of his past experience with happiness. So, a millionaire has a very high barrier to happiness, whereas the poor person has a low barrier to happiness. Now, if they both are made to experience a similar stimuli, they would experience different amount of pleasure due to their different levels of barrier to happiness.
3. All humans share a single way of entry and exit. They all take birth and die (though in different ways). Now, if we can ascertain that all humans start their life at a universally fixed happiness potential (let's say, at 0) and they all end their life at a fixed happiness potential (say, at 100) then one can easily see that the amount of happiness that all humans can perceive in their lives in fixed and same.
4. If A is a hedonist whereas B is a Buddhist monk, then we can assume that A has a higher barrier to pleasure and B has a lower barrier to pleasure. On the death of A and B, their barrier level would converge, and A, having spent high potential of happiness and avoided high pain potential, would find death to be painful, whereas B would find death to be pleasurable (for the opposite reasons).
5. I believe some would take issues with my argument 3. To them, I would like to point out that we are dealing here with a process and not an element. All humans go through this process (called life), and since they all begin their life in the same manner and end their lives in the same manner (i mean, by the loss of consciousness), we can assume that they all have same happiness (and pain) barrier level at these points.
This is why I believe happiness if finite and would amount the same for everyone. The happy souls among us are nothing but show offs, whereas the depressed souls among us are simply hiders.
Such a change in the notion of happiness can initiated several significant changes in our notions of ethics, politics, and in our general notions of right and wrong. I would be willing to discuss them in further, but only in the case if you have been convinced by my arguments above.
Hope to hear soon from you all!
Siochi

