Politeness and Philosophy
Posted: Thu Jan 19, 2012 3:50 am
To what extent should philosophical activity be willing to be 'polite' (or, perhaps, 'tactful')? If we claim that it is often necessary to go 'behind' everyday language in order to investigate and clarify many of the ideas we tend to hold as sacred then what happens when we find ourselves, in this pursuit of clarity, to transgress social taboos?
For example: if we make the claim (which, incidentally, I am not here intending to argue) that dominance is merely a form of enslavement, and from this make the further claim that the slave-owners in the US were themselves as oppressed (by a social or economic system) as those they enslaved, what happens when we are faced with the criticism that anyone who has suffered as a result of enslavement or is part of a social group that has this as a significant part of their history would find this 'offensive'? Are we then required to withdraw our claim on this basis alone?
Perhaps, put more simply, what happens if we use an abstract language to talk about a political problem that is considered controversial and potentially volatile? Another example is the argument regarding whether paedophilia can be considered a 'sexuality'. Those opposed may argue that homosexuals have fought (and continue to fight) hard to be recognised as consenting adults within the law and as such find the idea of paedophilia being given a similar status (albeit with the stipulation that there cannot be consent) to be insulting. The claim that both are based, quite simply, upon physical attraction which itself cannot be chosen is rejected despite its philosophical legitimacy (assuming said legitimacy has not been compromised by a different counter-argument). Should we, once again, be prepared to withdraw our point because it has caused offence?
For example: if we make the claim (which, incidentally, I am not here intending to argue) that dominance is merely a form of enslavement, and from this make the further claim that the slave-owners in the US were themselves as oppressed (by a social or economic system) as those they enslaved, what happens when we are faced with the criticism that anyone who has suffered as a result of enslavement or is part of a social group that has this as a significant part of their history would find this 'offensive'? Are we then required to withdraw our claim on this basis alone?
Perhaps, put more simply, what happens if we use an abstract language to talk about a political problem that is considered controversial and potentially volatile? Another example is the argument regarding whether paedophilia can be considered a 'sexuality'. Those opposed may argue that homosexuals have fought (and continue to fight) hard to be recognised as consenting adults within the law and as such find the idea of paedophilia being given a similar status (albeit with the stipulation that there cannot be consent) to be insulting. The claim that both are based, quite simply, upon physical attraction which itself cannot be chosen is rejected despite its philosophical legitimacy (assuming said legitimacy has not been compromised by a different counter-argument). Should we, once again, be prepared to withdraw our point because it has caused offence?