The Social Contract
Posted: Mon Mar 17, 2025 4:08 am
Many wannabe philosophers have claimed that they have the ability to write about The Social Contract. Other wannabe philosophers claim that no such thing exists.
Is there a Social Contract which is independent of any particular human being? In order for there to be a Social Contract, it would have to have originated outside the Social Structure. Or again, what Plato demonstrated, that what is Holy, is independent of both gods and men.
The question resolves to this. If the function of a mind is the Intelligible, then what is intelligible is independent of any particular human being, just like what is perceptible is independent of any human being. Therefore, the intelligible is just as real as the perceptible. Some have called this observation, Plato's Theory of Forms, although he claimed no such thing. Form has only one meaning. Mystics claim that the word form differs from itself. Form, shape, limit, etc. is not a theory, it is a physical fact. Shape, form is exists both perceptibly and intelligibly, however, its definition, which is intelligible, does in no wise change. A word does not, by some form of mystic reality change its meaning, for words, in of themselves, have absolutely no meaning. 1, has an intelligible meaning which is applied for perceptible usage. In no way at all, do we change what it means. We do, however apply it according to that convention of names, a convention WE establish or ignore.
So, see if you are a wannabe philosopher, or possibly a real one. If a mind has a well defined biologically determined job to perform and well defined physically determined means of doing that job. Then the intelligible Social Contract certainly exists; intelligibly, but that does not mean that it perceptibly exists. A Mind is an information processor. So, if mankind can even recognize the intelligible Social Contract, than he can write that Contract, as a factual Grammar Book.
Does Man differ from Man qua Man because the intelligible does not exist, or because mankind is not yet intelligent enough to make that truth perceptible?
It is the biological job of an intelligent species to establish the Intelligible assignment to the grammatical names by which it effects social behavior. Not one government today has ever done this. Not one educational system today has done this. Mankind is still incapable of a Social Contract. The human race has not yet applied the principles of Language to the formulation of establishment of Grammar.
In a metaphor; You cannot buy or sell unless you have the mark of the beast.
Is there a Social Contract which is independent of any particular human being? In order for there to be a Social Contract, it would have to have originated outside the Social Structure. Or again, what Plato demonstrated, that what is Holy, is independent of both gods and men.
The question resolves to this. If the function of a mind is the Intelligible, then what is intelligible is independent of any particular human being, just like what is perceptible is independent of any human being. Therefore, the intelligible is just as real as the perceptible. Some have called this observation, Plato's Theory of Forms, although he claimed no such thing. Form has only one meaning. Mystics claim that the word form differs from itself. Form, shape, limit, etc. is not a theory, it is a physical fact. Shape, form is exists both perceptibly and intelligibly, however, its definition, which is intelligible, does in no wise change. A word does not, by some form of mystic reality change its meaning, for words, in of themselves, have absolutely no meaning. 1, has an intelligible meaning which is applied for perceptible usage. In no way at all, do we change what it means. We do, however apply it according to that convention of names, a convention WE establish or ignore.
So, see if you are a wannabe philosopher, or possibly a real one. If a mind has a well defined biologically determined job to perform and well defined physically determined means of doing that job. Then the intelligible Social Contract certainly exists; intelligibly, but that does not mean that it perceptibly exists. A Mind is an information processor. So, if mankind can even recognize the intelligible Social Contract, than he can write that Contract, as a factual Grammar Book.
Does Man differ from Man qua Man because the intelligible does not exist, or because mankind is not yet intelligent enough to make that truth perceptible?
It is the biological job of an intelligent species to establish the Intelligible assignment to the grammatical names by which it effects social behavior. Not one government today has ever done this. Not one educational system today has done this. Mankind is still incapable of a Social Contract. The human race has not yet applied the principles of Language to the formulation of establishment of Grammar.
In a metaphor; You cannot buy or sell unless you have the mark of the beast.