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Scientific Knowledge has the highest degree of objectivity?

Posted: Thu May 07, 2020 2:47 am
by RyanDeBENNETT
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Thu Apr 02, 2020 7:00 am You are too narrow, shallow and off target on the above.

What is held to be true lies on a continuum of truths from .01/100 to 99.99/100 and each of the below has its own range of degrees of objectivity.
  • 1. opinions - high subjectivity with very nil or low objectivity 1/100
    2. Belief - with less than 50% objectivity
    3. Knowledge - with >50 to 99.99% objectivity.
  • objectivity = intersubjectivity consensus upon a credible framework of knowledge.
The above 3 elements are also correspondent to the degree of faith, i.e. opinions relying on the highest level of faith & subjectivity while knowledge on the least amount of faith with the highest level of objectivity.
  • For example, scientific knowledge has the highest degree of objectivity than any other source of knowledge based its properties [testability, verifiability, objectivity, repeatability, falsifiability,] and promise of consistent results for anyone. Scientific knowledge also rely on some minimal degree of faith.
Epistemologically, scientific knowledge is another knowledge constitution, knowledge composition, a knowledge doctrine. All knowledge constitutions can be validated by its constituents with the determinant modes,

- testability
- verifiability
- objectivity (...scrap this one. This is an ideal conclusion, not a determinant)
- repeatability
- falsifiability

True knowledge - explicitly - premised by these determinant modes exhibits nothing more-or-less than self validation.

Whilst ever one (or an epoch i.e. the consensus) does not recognize this, one remains subjugated within the confines of a knowledge doctrine(s) (i.e. indoctrinated). If only a fish would recognize it lives in water... For example, the statement "scientific knowledge has the highest degree of objectivity" indicates that one is clandestinely imprisoned within the knowledge doctrine with of Realism. Realism is the water, the un-recognized...

Epistemological transcendence is to recognise 'one's doctrines'. In this case, to recognise that Scientific Knowledge is - simply just - one's and 'the' current orthodox constitution, orthodox knowledge, the water.

The constitution of Scientific Knowledge is handy yes, but not epistemologically infallible, not worthy of the coronation of absolute, not anoint-able...

Re: Scientific Knowledge has the highest degree of objectivity?

Posted: Thu May 07, 2020 5:56 am
by Veritas Aequitas
RyanDeBENNETT wrote: Thu May 07, 2020 2:47 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Thu Apr 02, 2020 7:00 am You are too narrow, shallow and off target on the above.

What is held to be true lies on a continuum of truths from .01/100 to 99.99/100 and each of the below has its own range of degrees of objectivity.
  • 1. opinions - high subjectivity with very nil or low objectivity 1/100
    2. Belief - with less than 50% objectivity
    3. Knowledge - with >50 to 99.99% objectivity.
  • objectivity = intersubjectivity consensus upon a credible framework of knowledge.
The above 3 elements are also correspondent to the degree of faith, i.e. opinions relying on the highest level of faith & subjectivity while knowledge on the least amount of faith with the highest level of objectivity.
  • For example, scientific knowledge has the highest degree of objectivity than any other source of knowledge based its properties [testability, verifiability, objectivity, repeatability, falsifiability,] and promise of consistent results for anyone. Scientific knowledge also rely on some minimal degree of faith.
Epistemologically, scientific knowledge is another knowledge constitution, knowledge composition, a knowledge doctrine. All knowledge constitutions can be validated by its constituents with the determinant modes,

- testability
- verifiability
- objectivity (...scrap this one. This is an ideal conclusion, not a determinant)
- repeatability
- falsifiability

True knowledge - explicitly - premised by these determinant modes exhibits nothing more-or-less than self validation.

Whilst ever one (or an epoch i.e. the consensus) does not recognize this, one remains subjugated within the confines of a knowledge doctrine(s) (i.e. indoctrinated). If only a fish would recognize it lives in water... For example, the statement "scientific knowledge has the highest degree of objectivity" indicates that one is clandestinely imprisoned within the knowledge doctrine with of Realism. Realism is the water, the un-recognized...

Epistemological transcendence is to recognise 'one's doctrines'. In this case, to recognise that Scientific Knowledge is - simply just - one's and 'the' current orthodox constitution, orthodox knowledge, the water.

The constitution of Scientific Knowledge is handy yes, but not epistemologically infallible, not worthy of the coronation of absolute, not anoint-able...
Other than the point re 'objectivity' I agree with the above but I note the view is too narrow and confined.

As I had stated, what is knowledge epistemologically is determined within the continuum from opinion to belief to knowledge.

What is knowledge must be conditioned upon the Framework of Knowledge it is derived from and must carry such qualifications at all times. I presume this is what you meant by 'knowledge constitution'.

Note definition of 'objective';
  • Objective = expressing or dealing with facts or conditions as perceived without distortion by personal feelings, prejudices, or interpretations.
Since knowledge is derived from and conditioned upon its Framework of Knowledge, this would be independent of personal feelings, prejudices, or interpretations, thus objective [as defined above].
  • For example, once a scientific theory is established by intersubjective consensus, it is always referenced and qualified to the specific field of knowledge within Scientific Framework and never upon the personal feelings, prejudices, or interpretations of individual scientists or others.
This objective knowledge, i.e. its degrees of objectivity is dependent on the features you mentioned above - without objectivity, i.e.
  • - testability
    - verifiability
    - repeatability
    - falsifiability
    - intersubjective consensus, peer review etc.
I believe you have conflated the above objectivity with the 'objectivity' of Philosophical Realism,
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Philosophical_realism;
note the general meaning;
  • objective [Realism]: of, relating to, or being an object, phenomenon, or condition in the realm of sensible experience independent of individual thought and perceptible by all observers : having reality independent of the mind
    https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/objective#h1
I have already stated earlier;
  • objectivity = intersubjectivity consensus upon a credible framework of knowledge.
Because intersubjective consensus by subjects is imperative for objectivity as defined, what is objective is fundamentally meta-subjective.

Note there are many frameworks of knowledge which are considered objective [general not philosophical], e.g. Science, legal, political, social, economics, sports, arts, beauty contests, etc.
The degrees of objectivity will be determined by the ratings of features mentioned above.

It is common knowledge, Scientific Knowledge has the highest degree of objectivity.
Do you dispute this?
Even while scientific knowledge project the greatest confidence level due to its promise of "repeatability" it is as best [according to Popper] are merely polished conjectures.

That Zozibini Tunzi of South Africa is Miss Universe 2019 is an objective fact, but such a fact is conditioned upon the rules and judges appointed by the Miss-Universe Organization and Constitution.
Once this fact is established via due process, personal feelings, prejudices, or interpretations of individuals don't matter at all. It can only change if there is something wrong with the process and the contest is performed again.

Thus even beauty can be objectified in this case, but we have to assess its degree of objectivity in accordance to the features above which would be very low.

Re: Scientific Knowledge has the highest degree of objectivity?

Posted: Thu May 07, 2020 8:12 am
by RyanDeBENNETT
I acknowledge what you have posited Veritas and yes, can recognise it and it is good. However, I can only recognize it through a (post a belief in) 'Objective/Subjective Framework of Knowledge', an 'Objective/Subjective Constitution with it's belief constituents Self and Other, Self and 'not-Self', 'I' and 'You'.

You see, Objectivity/Object/Objective/Intersubjective/meta-subjective only 'exist' post - and only post - subscription-to/belief-in a/the Object/Subject Knowledge Framework with 'apex' constituents Self and Other. I term this philosophies first problem, The mind/Mind problem (caps intended). The Object/Subject Knowledge Framework proceeds a speciously 'solved' mind/Mind Problem. Do you recognize this?

I use the Philosophical Realism framework as an exemplification of this as - in my opinion - it has the highest requsuit of this Object/Subject Knowledge Framework that goes almost entirely unrecognised in this epoch...So-much-so that one can safely state that this Object/Subject Knowledge Framework belief (the proceeds of a speciously solved mind/Mind Problem) is the primordial axiom that denominates all 'orthodox' Knowledge today; it is today's Orthodox Knowledge Radical, it is pointedly primarily why today's Knowledge can be - safely - termed orthodoxy.

Do you recognize it?

Re: Scientific Knowledge has the highest degree of objectivity?

Posted: Thu May 07, 2020 8:38 am
by Skepdick
I think what you are calling "degree of objectivity" is more rigorously quantified as "highest confidence".

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Confidence_interval

Re: Scientific Knowledge has the highest degree of objectivity?

Posted: Thu May 07, 2020 10:11 am
by Veritas Aequitas
RyanDeBENNETT wrote: Thu May 07, 2020 8:12 am ....
I use the Philosophical Realism framework as an exemplification of this as - in my opinion - it has the highest requsuit of this Object/Subject Knowledge Framework that goes almost entirely unrecognised in this epoch...So-much-so that one can safely state that this Object/Subject Knowledge Framework belief (the proceeds of a speciously solved mind/Mind Problem) is the primordial axiom that denominates all 'orthodox' Knowledge today; it is today's Orthodox Knowledge Radical, it is pointedly primarily why today's Knowledge can be - safely - termed orthodoxy.

Do you recognize it?
I cannot recognize exactly where you are leading to.

You mentioned mind/MIND Problem. Are you alluding there is a "Mind" beside the ordinary mind of humans as in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mind.

I believe all philosophical issues are reducible to either the Philosophical Realism or Philosophical anti-Realism. See;
All Philosophies Reduced to Realism vs Idealism
viewtopic.php?f=5&t=28643
Thus you can only be in either one or the other.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Philosophical_realism
In metaphysics, [Philosopical] Realism about a given object is the view that this object exists in reality independently of our conceptual scheme. In philosophical terms, these objects are ontologically independent of someone's conceptual scheme, perceptions, linguistic practices, beliefs, etc.
Are you with the Philosophical Realists' view or Philosophical anti-Realists' views.
If the latter, which specific Philosophical anti-Realist's view do you adopt?

I am with the Philosophical Anti-Realist with a focus on a non-theistic Kantian Empirical Realism.

Re: Scientific Knowledge has the highest degree of objectivity?

Posted: Fri May 08, 2020 12:36 am
by RyanDeBENNETT
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Thu May 07, 2020 10:11 am You mentioned mind/MIND Problem. Are you alluding there is a "Mind" beside the ordinary mind of humans as in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mind.
Yes.

It is epistemologically safe to state that, it is a greater truth in recognizing the precedes, the 'father', the 'habitat' of the 'ordinary human Mind', that is mind (caps intended). Now I will not be professing what mind (caps intended) is no, that is not the point. The point is that - for example - the 'ordinary human Mind' doctrine is a doctrine indeed, a doctrine in which proceeds an erroneously solved (assumed/asserted/believed-in) mind/Mind (caps intended) Problem. Yes indeed it should be awarded the title 'ordinary' as it is today's primary ordinance, hence the prior orthodox appellation.
The Problem of Criterion https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Problem_of_the_criterion is 'not an epistemollgical problem' for those who have erroneously solved (assumed/asserted/believed-in) mind/Mind (caps intended) Problem.
Some examples include, the mind/Mind Problem precedes the Cartesian Mind/Body problem, the mind/Mind Problem precedes the Freud Preconscious/Conscious/Unconscious Mind and... the mind/Mind Problem precedes both Realism and Realism and Idealism - yes Idealistic form per se can only fashion essence that is 'every-essence' devoid of "I"/"Self", that-is the 'antithetical I/Self' that is Other (an-other form); only and pointedly proceeding a solved (assumed/asserted/believed-in) mind/Mind Problem.
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Thu May 07, 2020 10:11 am I believe all philosophical issues are reducible to either the Philosophical Realism or Philosophical anti-Realism. See;
All Philosophies Reduced to Realism vs Idealism
viewtopic.php?f=5&t=28643
Thus you can only be in either one or the other.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Philosophical_realism
In metaphysics, [Philosopical] Realism about a given object is the view that this object exists in reality independently of our conceptual scheme. In philosophical terms, these objects are ontologically independent of someone's conceptual scheme, perceptions, linguistic practices, beliefs, etc.
Are you with the Philosophical Realists' view or Philosophical anti-Realists' views.
If the latter, which specific Philosophical anti-Realist's view do you adopt?
I am neither as they are both progeny of the solved mind/Mind Problem (as outlined above). I recognize these "Frameworks of Knowledge" as handy Epistemological tools but I do not identify with them, I am not a patron of them, they do not form the genesis of 'my' Epistemology. I recognize and understand a Realist/Idealist argument via these Frameworks of Knowledge though do not see great Epistemological nuance in a juxtaposition of them nor the their 'Knowledge offspring'.
one views knowledge through and-only-through the 'lens' of one's knowledge. 'Lens' recognition is an Epistemological virtue
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Thu May 07, 2020 10:11 am I am with the Philosophical Anti-Realist with a focus on a non-theistic Kantian Empirical Realism.
I welcome the discourse Veritas

Re: Scientific Knowledge has the highest degree of objectivity?

Posted: Fri May 08, 2020 8:05 am
by Veritas Aequitas
RyanDeBENNETT wrote: Fri May 08, 2020 12:36 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Thu May 07, 2020 10:11 am You mentioned mind/MIND Problem. Are you alluding there is a "Mind" beside the ordinary mind of humans as in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mind.
Yes.

It is epistemologically safe to state that, it is a greater truth in recognizing the precedes, the 'father', the 'habitat' of the 'ordinary human Mind', that is mind (caps intended). Now I will not be professing what mind (caps intended) is no, that is not the point. The point is that - for example - the 'ordinary human Mind' doctrine is a doctrine indeed, a doctrine in which proceeds an erroneously solved (assumed/asserted/believed-in) mind/Mind (caps intended) Problem. Yes indeed it should be awarded the title 'ordinary' as it is today's primary ordinance, hence the prior orthodox appellation.
The Problem of Criterion https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Problem_of_the_criterion is 'not an epistemollgical problem' for those who have erroneously solved (assumed/asserted/believed-in) mind/Mind (caps intended) Problem.
Some examples include, the mind/Mind Problem precedes the Cartesian Mind/Body problem, the mind/Mind Problem precedes the Freud Preconscious/Conscious/Unconscious Mind and... the mind/Mind Problem precedes both Realism and Realism and Idealism - yes Idealistic form per se can only fashion essence that is 'every-essence' devoid of "I"/"Self", that-is the 'antithetical I/Self' that is Other (an-other form); only and pointedly proceeding a solved (assumed/asserted/believed-in) mind/Mind Problem.
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Thu May 07, 2020 10:11 am I believe all philosophical issues are reducible to either the Philosophical Realism or Philosophical anti-Realism. See;
All Philosophies Reduced to Realism vs Idealism
viewtopic.php?f=5&t=28643
Thus you can only be in either one or the other.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Philosophical_realism
In metaphysics, [Philosopical] Realism about a given object is the view that this object exists in reality independently of our conceptual scheme. In philosophical terms, these objects are ontologically independent of someone's conceptual scheme, perceptions, linguistic practices, beliefs, etc.
Are you with the Philosophical Realists' view or Philosophical anti-Realists' views.
If the latter, which specific Philosophical anti-Realist's view do you adopt?
I am neither as they are both progeny of the solved mind/Mind Problem (as outlined above). I recognize these "Frameworks of Knowledge" as handy Epistemological tools but I do not identify with them, I am not a patron of them, they do not form the genesis of 'my' Epistemology. I recognize and understand a Realist/Idealist argument via these Frameworks of Knowledge though do not see great Epistemological nuance in a juxtaposition of them nor the their 'Knowledge offspring'.
one views knowledge through and-only-through the 'lens' of one's knowledge. 'Lens' recognition is an Epistemological virtue
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Thu May 07, 2020 10:11 am I am with the Philosophical Anti-Realist with a focus on a non-theistic Kantian Empirical Realism.
I welcome the discourse Veritas
Noted your point above.

However I still cannot understand [not necessary agree with] where you are heading.

Are you implying you agree with the Problem of Criterion and have the answer to it?
The Problem of Criterion https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Problem_of_the_criterion

I believe the Problem of Criterion faces the Meno's Paradox, i.e.
"how can one know when what one do not know cannot be known."

Let me finish reading this;
https://www.iep.utm.edu/criterio/
Chisholm claimed to be able to resolve the Problem of the Criterion?

However on first impression, the Problem of the Criterion do not appear to be leading to anything fundamental with knowledge.

Perhaps you can add more details to facilitate for me to understand [not necessary agree] the issue.

Btw, just to clear the point.
Are you theistic or non-theistic?

Re: Scientific Knowledge has the highest degree of objectivity?

Posted: Sat May 09, 2020 12:11 am
by RyanDeBENNETT
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Fri May 08, 2020 8:05 am Are you implying you agree with the Problem of Criterion and have the answer to it?
The Problem of Criterion https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Problem_of_the_criterion
No and pointedly, my position is quite the opposite. If one were to state what Knowledge is, that a Knowledge Framework is 'of higher degree of objectivity', or that Knowledge is of - the horrifying epistemological villian - 'fact' , one is stating that one has solved the Problem of Criterion; that is they have 'found' the divine starting point of Knowledge. To decree Knowledge proceeding this, note I would term this Knowledge "Knowledge proceeding a solved Problem of Criterion".
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Fri May 08, 2020 8:05 am I believe the Problem of Criterion faces the Meno's Paradox, i.e.
"how can one know when what one do not know cannot be known."
agree.
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Fri May 08, 2020 8:05 am Let me finish reading this;
https://www.iep.utm.edu/criterio/
Chisholm claimed to be able to resolve the Problem of the Criterion?

However on first impression, the Problem of the Criterion do not appear to be leading to anything fundamental with knowledge.

Perhaps you can add more details to facilitate for me to understand [not necessary agree] the issue.
Ok here goes.


Object/subject is one of the most highly used frameworks of any knowledge epoch. The wiki definition alone (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Subjectivity) is baked with confusion and dissonance…"which has been variously defined by sources"...and here is an experiment to expose why.



A thought experiment. Please try contemplation of the following:

The object/subject is a continuum of contraries, agree?

Tell me, what is the object/subject continuum - principly - denominating?



Discern this principle, and one is presented with an epoch’s primordial origin of knowledge, it’s first object, it’s ‘Super’ Axiom if you will. Discern short of this principle, and one is presented with (and only with) ONE’S primordial origin of knowledge, one’s first object, one’s ‘Super’ Axiom.

The truest primordial origin of an epochs knowledge will be awarded to that which is most radical to the epochs knowledge. My current position falls under what i have termed the mind/Mind* Problem/continuum, my current position is the Mind (caps intended). Mind (caps intended) is this epochs principle radical, it’s Super Axiom.

Do you see it?

*one may find more recognition of this via contemplation with the following substitutes (i/I problem, self/Self problem, objective(subjective)/Objective problem, essence/Essence problem, not-Form/Form Problem and so on...)


Note: Johann Gottlieb Fichte offers an enjoyable allegory offering one a glimpse premonition of the a. the mind/Mind Problem (in his case the 'i/I Problem' and b. it's 'feeling' precedes
Johann Gottlieb Fichte: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Johann_Go ... ral_theory

Note Note: haha this does not make me a German Idealists no, I recognise this knowledge and it's precedes

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Fri May 08, 2020 8:05 am Btw, just to clear the point.
Are you theistic or non-theistic?
a wonderful question

Re: Scientific Knowledge has the highest degree of objectivity?

Posted: Sat May 09, 2020 7:48 am
by Veritas Aequitas
RyanDeBENNETT wrote: Sat May 09, 2020 12:11 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Fri May 08, 2020 8:05 am Are you implying you agree with the Problem of Criterion and have the answer to it?
The Problem of Criterion https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Problem_of_the_criterion
No and pointedly, my position is quite the opposite. If one were to state what Knowledge is, that a Knowledge Framework is 'of higher degree of objectivity', or that Knowledge is of - the horrifying epistemological villian - 'fact' , one is stating that one has solved the Problem of Criterion; that is they have 'found' the divine starting point of Knowledge. To decree Knowledge proceeding this, note I would term this Knowledge "Knowledge proceeding a solved Problem of Criterion".
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Fri May 08, 2020 8:05 am I believe the Problem of Criterion faces the Meno's Paradox, i.e.
"how can one know when what one do not know cannot be known."
agree.
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Fri May 08, 2020 8:05 am Let me finish reading this;
https://www.iep.utm.edu/criterio/
Chisholm claimed to be able to resolve the Problem of the Criterion?

However on first impression, the Problem of the Criterion do not appear to be leading to anything fundamental with knowledge.

Perhaps you can add more details to facilitate for me to understand [not necessary agree] the issue.
Ok here goes.


Object/subject is one of the most highly used frameworks of any knowledge epoch. The wiki definition alone (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Subjectivity) is baked with confusion and dissonance…"which has been variously defined by sources"...and here is an experiment to expose why.

A thought experiment. Please try contemplation of the following:
The object/subject is a continuum of contraries, agree?
Tell me, what is the object/subject continuum - principly - denominating?

Discern this principle, and one is presented with an epoch’s primordial origin of knowledge, it’s first object, it’s ‘Super’ Axiom if you will. Discern short of this principle, and one is presented with (and only with) ONE’S primordial origin of knowledge, one’s first object, one’s ‘Super’ Axiom.

The truest primordial origin of an epochs knowledge will be awarded to that which is most radical to the epochs knowledge. My current position falls under what i have termed the mind/Mind* Problem/continuum, my current position is the Mind (caps intended). Mind (caps intended) is this epochs principle radical, it’s Super Axiom.

Do you see it?

*one may find more recognition of this via contemplation with the following substitutes (i/I problem, self/Self problem, objective(subjective)/Objective problem, essence/Essence problem, not-Form/Form Problem and so on...)


Note: Johann Gottlieb Fichte offers an enjoyable allegory offering one a glimpse premonition of the a. the mind/Mind Problem (in his case the 'i/I Problem' and b. it's 'feeling' precedes
Johann Gottlieb Fichte: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Johann_Go ... ral_theory

Note Note: haha this does not make me a German Idealists no, I recognise this knowledge and it's precedes
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Fri May 08, 2020 8:05 am Btw, just to clear the point.
Are you theistic or non-theistic?
a wonderful question
Noted your points above but I still cannot understand your basic position;

I asked;
Are you theistic or non-theistic?
No direct answer from you but merely you replied "a wonderful question."
No and pointedly, my position is quite the opposite.
If one were to state what Knowledge is, that a Knowledge Framework is 'of higher degree of objectivity', or that Knowledge is of - the horrifying epistemological villian - 'fact' , one is stating that one has solved the Problem of Criterion; that is they have 'found' the divine starting point of Knowledge. To decree Knowledge proceeding this, note I would term this Knowledge "Knowledge proceeding a solved Problem of Criterion".
I guess your mention of 'divine' 'super axiom' the Mind (caps intended) allude to theism?

Instead of me guessing, why not present your philosophical stance/position and support it with arguments - that would be the more proper philosophical approach.
A thought experiment. Please try contemplation of the following:
The object/subject is a continuum of contraries, agree?
Tell me, what is the object/subject continuum - principaly - denominating?
This subject/object dichotomy can easily explained via evolutionary psychology.

To ensure survival, the individuals of the past* are "programmed" to focus their attention outward from themselves to elements that will facilitate their survival, i.e. food and external threats to their lives.
* inheriting traits from our ancient ancestor since 4 billions years ago.
This is why the "programmed" individual humans are habitualized to view themselves [subjects] as independent of the external objects.
Such "programs" are embedded deep in the basement of the primal brain and they cannot be reprogrammed easily.

Note Hume's on Causation as being driven by constant conjunction originating from customs, habits and conventions, i.e. psychological which is related to my explanation above.

Re the Problem of Criterion;
I prefer the Dissolution Approach;
Robert Amico (1988a, 1993, and 1996) offers a very different response to the Problem of the Criterion.
Rather than attempting to solve the Problem of the Criterion, Amico attempts to “dissolve” it.
It is because of the role of rational doubt that Amico distinguishes between solutions to problems and dissolutions of problems.
A solution to a problem is a set of true statements that answer the question that generates the problem and removes the rational doubt concerning the answer to the question.
Dissolution occurs when the rational doubt is removed, not by an answer to the question, but rather by recognition that it is impossible to adequately answer the question.
  • For example, Amico claims that the problem of how to square a circle is dissolved as soon as one recognizes that it is impossible to make a circular square.
    Once someone sees that it is impossible to make a circular square, the question “How do you square a circle?” does not generate any rational doubt for h
er.
Without rational doubt, Amico claims that the problem has been dissolved and there is no need to look for a solution.
https://www.iep.utm.edu/criterio/#SH3b
The indirect solution why the Problem of Criterion is raised in the first place is again due to psychology, i.e as in the evolutionary psychology basis of how the subject is habituated to view objects as external to oneself to facilitate survival.
This has its pros and cons.
The object/subject distinction was net-positive in the ancient days in alignment with the average psychological states, but we are not in a transition where its cons are not outweighing the pros.

As such as we move into the future, humanity must understand the subject/object dichotomy and not be dogmatic about it.

I note Johann Gottlieb Fichte's theory is still caught by the subject/object dichotomy in a more refined way.

The fact is,
You and ALL are Part and Parcel of Reality.
viewtopic.php?f=5&t=29272

as such, there is no way the subjects can be independent of whatever is of reality [all there is].
If you posit Mind [with cap] that 'Mind' is intersubjective and inevitably 'co-created' by subjects.

Could your be the Philosophy of Non-Duality - no-me, no-I etc.?
Nondual Philosophy
viewtopic.php?f=16&t=29218