Historical Constants
Posted: Fri Mar 14, 2014 8:41 pm
Does the following paragraph describe a "historical constant"?
"Wherever a social order, or rather the power that preserves this social order, sees the foundations of the order shaken, endangered not by plans for overthrow but by ideas, there looms on the horizon the possibility of an Inquisition; in this the Middle Ages were no different from today, whether we speak of modern Russia or of modern America. It is plain that this is an everlasting temptation and danger." p. 34
Pieper, Josef, Guide to Thomas Aquinas (1962)
http://www.amazon.com/Guide-Thomas-Aqui ... as+aquinas
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"The Inquisition was a group of institutions within the judicial system of the Roman Catholic Church whose aim was to combat heresy. It started in 12th-century France to combat the spread of religious sectarianism, in particular the Cathars and the Waldensians. This Medieval Inquisition persisted into the 14th century, and from the 1250s was associated with the Dominican Order. In the early 14th century, two other movements attracted the attention of the Inquisition, the Knights Templar and the Beguines."
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inquisition
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Pieper mentions the Inquisition because Aquinas was a member of the Dominican order. He writes:
"At this point, however, a terrible matter must be mentioned, one which is diametrically opposed to everything that we have said about Dominic's and Thomas' own ethics of teaching and the propagation of truth. This terrible matter is called the Inquisition. It cannot be passed over because the Inquisition - precisely during the lifetime of Thomas Aquinas - very directly affected the first generation of the Dominican Order. It represents , moreover, a taint and a disgrace that cannot be wiped out by any attempts at "historical" explanation.", p. 33 (Emphasis added)
But, I'm primarily interested in an alleged "inquisition tendency" as being an historical constant. I've wondered what other historical instances might reasonably be considered as falling within Pieper's generalization.
One U.S. instance that comes to my mind is that which is known as McCarthyism.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/McCarthyism
Can you think of any historical examples from any country that either supports or negates the validity of Pieper's generalization?
"Wherever a social order, or rather the power that preserves this social order, sees the foundations of the order shaken, endangered not by plans for overthrow but by ideas, there looms on the horizon the possibility of an Inquisition; in this the Middle Ages were no different from today, whether we speak of modern Russia or of modern America. It is plain that this is an everlasting temptation and danger." p. 34
Pieper, Josef, Guide to Thomas Aquinas (1962)
http://www.amazon.com/Guide-Thomas-Aqui ... as+aquinas
________________
"The Inquisition was a group of institutions within the judicial system of the Roman Catholic Church whose aim was to combat heresy. It started in 12th-century France to combat the spread of religious sectarianism, in particular the Cathars and the Waldensians. This Medieval Inquisition persisted into the 14th century, and from the 1250s was associated with the Dominican Order. In the early 14th century, two other movements attracted the attention of the Inquisition, the Knights Templar and the Beguines."
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inquisition
____________________
Pieper mentions the Inquisition because Aquinas was a member of the Dominican order. He writes:
"At this point, however, a terrible matter must be mentioned, one which is diametrically opposed to everything that we have said about Dominic's and Thomas' own ethics of teaching and the propagation of truth. This terrible matter is called the Inquisition. It cannot be passed over because the Inquisition - precisely during the lifetime of Thomas Aquinas - very directly affected the first generation of the Dominican Order. It represents , moreover, a taint and a disgrace that cannot be wiped out by any attempts at "historical" explanation.", p. 33 (Emphasis added)
But, I'm primarily interested in an alleged "inquisition tendency" as being an historical constant. I've wondered what other historical instances might reasonably be considered as falling within Pieper's generalization.
One U.S. instance that comes to my mind is that which is known as McCarthyism.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/McCarthyism
Can you think of any historical examples from any country that either supports or negates the validity of Pieper's generalization?