Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Mon Jan 15, 2024 2:43 pm
Veritas Aequitas wrote: ↑Mon Jan 15, 2024 7:14 am
Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Mon Jan 15, 2024 4:53 am
That's actually just a definition of "agnosticism" -- unless it's coupled with a stronger claim, like, "because such don't exist." As you're wording it, it leaves wide open the possibility that God or gods
still exist, but the speaker just "
lacks belief in them."
And to "lack belief" in something that he either could know or should know is not any badge of honour, but rather just a confession of ignorance or inexperience. So it leaves the speaker open to the suggestion that he just hasn't got enough experience or thoughtfulness to know anything about the subject -- but it leaves the question of the possible existence of a God or gods inadequately addressed.
Atheists would be smart to reject so weak a definition. It leaves them no means to say that God does not exist, and puts the fault back on the speaker for "lacking" knowledge.
Here is how [a]theism started [> 3000 years ago?].
- Psalm 14:1 The fool hath said in his heart, There is no God. They are corrupt, they have done abominable works, there is none that doeth good.
From the above, Psalm 14:1 triggered desperate believers to coin the term 'atheist' [one word for convenience instead of a narrative] to represent the "fools" as [a]theists in a very pejorative manner; this is with reference to those fools who do not believe in God.
Sorry: this is nonsense. You don't know a thing about it, obviously. Let me help you out, there.
Here's the real etymology:
In early ancient Greek, the adjective átheos (ἄθεος, from the privative ἀ- + θεός "god") meant "godless". It was first used as a term of censure roughly meaning "ungodly" or "impious". In the 5th century BCE, the word began to indicate more deliberate and active godlessness in the sense of "severing relations with the gods" or "denying the gods". The term ἀσεβής (asebēs) then came to be applied against those who impiously denied or disrespected the local gods, even if they believed in other gods. Modern translations of classical texts sometimes render átheos as "atheistic". As an abstract noun, there was also ἀθεότης (atheotēs), "atheism". Cicero transliterated the Greek word into the Latin átheos. The term found frequent use in the debate between early Christians and Hellenists, with each side attributing it, in the pejorative sense, to the other.
The truth is that "Atheist" is a
Greek word, as its form reveals; it was not at all invented by the writer of the Psalms, who was a Hebrew. It does not appear in association with Psalm 14, nor did it appear until much later. In fact, later polytheists used it to describe not people who believed in no gods at all, but rather anybody who was insufficiently reverent to all the many gods the Greeks believed in. In fact, the early Christians were condemned as "Atheists" by the Romans, because they believed in only one God, and not in the many gods of the Greeks and Romans.
The term 'atheist' originated somewhere around the 15th century.
I see how you think this is right: you're talking about its English usage, not its usage in Greek or in the ancient world. But it's not right. It didn't originate there, nor did the concept.
However, what the Psalm says is certainly right.
Nonsense??
It is your manner of approach that are irrational and immature.
You stated earlier [see above]
IC 'That's actually just a definition of "agnosticism" '
My post was to counter your above.
I was not wrong, i.e.
The term atheist (from the French athée), in the sense of "one who ... denies the existence of God or gods",[11] predates atheism in English, being first found as early as 1566,[12] and again in 1571.[13] Atheist as a label of practical godlessness was used at least as early as 1577.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_atheism
I read the Wiki article sometime ago and the
"In early ancient Greek, the adjective átheos (ἄθεος, from the privative ἀ- + θεός "god") meant "godless".." was added subsequently, thus I missed that.
I'll accept it as face value.
I did not state, the writers of the Psalms invented the word 'atheist' but rather that verse influenced Christians to emphasize on the term 'atheist' as a convenience and used is pejoratively. So the idea related to 'atheism' as I had stated started perhaps >3000 years ago, i.e. when the OT ideas first originated.
Buddhism an ANTI-theistic religion originated 2500 years ago.
In fact, the early Christians were condemned as "Atheists" by the Romans, because they believed in only one God, and not in the many gods of the Greeks and Romans.
There is no absolute rule on how a word can be used. Note the term 'gay'.
Just like what you are doing now, for the Romans to refer to Christians [monotheistic God] as 'atheists' in reference to polytheism is obviously a semantic error in reference to the general meaning of 'god' at that time.