But how is or could space/time be as: speed?
Subject moves x space over time y.
eg. 60mph means: 60 miles (x) over 60 minutes (y).
This is a ratio of space/time.
I'm surprised you didn't know that.
Space and time do not move, so there is no speed with space nor with time. They are both just the measurement of distance.
Space and time are like the eyes of the yin-yang: their interaction is 'motion' concerning any subject.
As with electromagnetism wherein electricity requires both dielectric and magnetic forces working in unison to produce anything,
motion requires both time and space.
You just wrote "well observed" but then contradict that.
There is
no contradiction.
The actual measurement of space and time can be observed, with the physical eyes, but space and time, themselves, are of no physical thing, which can be directly observed, with the physical eyes.
You can measure s/t but not t/s because t/s is
faster-than-light (relativity is
not correct).
You can not talk about one without talking about the other: hence,
reciprocals (as stated).
It was the second thing I stated.
1/x = real (less than the speed of light) = matter (ie. "stuff")
1/1 = unity (speed of light)
x/1 = ethereal (greater than the speed of light) = energy (ie. "work")
But how is or could space or time be as: energy?
The first step in understanding this is to stop trying to separate space and time. They are reciprocals, like yin-yang. See above.
Space and time do no move, so there is no energy with space nor with time. They are both just the measurement of distance.
The first step in understanding this is to stop trying to separate space and time.
You just wrote "well observed" and then contradict that.
There is
no contradiction.
The actual distance of space and time can be observed, with the Mind's Eye, and space and time, themselves, although are of no physical thing, can actually be directly observed, with the Mind's Eye.
The
inseparability between space and time / time and space can be understood with the "Mind's Eye", but not by everyone.
Why is this even brought into a discussion when it is not even needed?
It is needed: it clarifies that A (ie. any manifest subject)
must have motion as an intrinsic property. There is no-thing in the universe not in motion, thus the Aristotelian identity law A=A is
false. It is relevant because the concerned observation:
I think that time is the measurement of change and motion is needed for change to happen
Without motion there can be no change and if there is no change then there can be no time
mandates that any identity law incorporate "motion" as intrinsic to its existence.
Are you able to at least explain what the above could achieve?
√1 = +1, -1
√A = +A, -A
A ≠ A
A = *A
___________
*variability allows motion(s)
It achieves an immensely versatile mapping of a torus field. If one is unable to intuit how/why this can be used to solve for
practically anything, they will have to wait until the theorem is out, as it will be used to solve for the problem of 'from whence human suffering?' and/or 'believer vs. unbeliever' (same problem/solution).