I accept that different religions have different interpretations of who and what their God is, there is no disagreement here. I am only stating that a religion has a God that is worshiped or revered in some way.
Fair enough.
I guess the question is, "What do we conclude from that?" And all I'm suggesting is what we *cannot* conclude: namely, that one interpretation is as good as another, which I suggest on the basis of the basic laws of reason. However, you then add,
I would only question this one point, the law of non-contradiction.
Well, to
understand Aristotle's three laws is pretty much to
agree with them automatically. The reason I say this is that it requires reason to grasp them, and they describe the parameters of reason itself. One needs reason even to criticize reason. If one provides reasons why reason is unreliable, then one has killed all the strength of one's own argument. There's no way to reason out that reason doesn't work.
Either it's reasonable to believe rational propositions of all kinds, or it's simply not; but if it's not, then one cannot use reason to say so, and be consistent therein. So the three laws are merely descriptions of what one simply *cannot* avoid doing if one is using reason. Seen that way, there's even less sense to saying "I disagree with the laws of reason" then there is to saying "I disagree with the law of gravity." Neither is the kind of thing one can "disagree" about. Disagreement itself is a rational process -- well, unless it's mindless cavilling -- but I think that's not what you do or wish to defend, right?
I would question why should we expect God or the universe to behave according to human practice. I will take the liberty of quoting scripture here,
Isaiah 55-8
“For my thoughts are not your thoughts,
neither are your ways my ways,”
Which I take to mean that God does not behave according to human expectations.
Good point. I agree.
But of course we're going to have to interpret what's meant by "ways" there. Does it entail different methods and purposes ( I think yes), or does it also have to imply irrationality on God's part (I would say we have no reason to think so). Is God promising he will behave wildly, stupidly or absurdly? Or is He saying, "If I tried to tell you what I'm doing, then with your limited mind you would not get it"? I think the latter.
I say that because the God of Torah is a very rational Law-giving kind of God. He is also, unlike, say the Eastern gods, no denigrator of reason. For He says, "Come let us
reason together...though your sins are as scarlet, they shall be as white as wool." That's in the same book, Isaiah 1:18. Then in both the Torah and New Testament, He says, "You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart...and all your mind." This is a God of Law and reason -- quite different from the irrational gods of the animists or ancient Greeks and Romans, or the anti-rational religions of the East, which emphasize "emptying" not filling the mind. So putting Isaiah into the context of the whole of the book, rather than grabbing a lone word like "ways" and making something out of that, I think we get a picture of a very reason-loving God.
What to us may appear as mutually-exclusive, may not be to God.
I think that can be true of non-contradictory propositions: but I don't see -- at least in Christianity and Judaism -- that it can include genuinely contradictory ones. As I say, the God of Torah relies heavily on appeals to reason, and gives laws Himself. He even binds himself to covenants. Now, in Eastern thought, the way to get to "the god" is through unreason -- through denial of physical reality and emptying oneself of all desire and attachment to it. But this is nowhere posited as the way to God in Judaism or Christianity. Again you see the differences.
One other point, in my arguments and statements I do not define God, because to do so I would be putting God in a box and I don't claim to be qualified.
Oh, I'm not either. Fair enough.
But here's my question: If the Supreme Being is really "supreme," can he define Himself? And if His supremacy entails the ability to define himself, can He express that definition in such a way as to make Himself understood?
If we concede the term "supreme" to Him, I cannot see why we would think either thing would not be entailed. Can you?