Re: Is morality objective or subjective?
Posted: Mon Jan 15, 2024 8:21 pm
Well, something that is objective can be verified! It is not like that God owes everything then everything that God says is objective. What kind of verification is this?Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Mon Jan 15, 2024 7:54 pmNo. If morality is objective, it means that it's true whether or not human beings even know it is.
So God does not have any reason except that He owns us!Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Mon Jan 15, 2024 7:26 pmSee above. It doesn't. It just means we should agree, because it's foolish and counterproductive to disbelieve in an objective truth.If morality is objective then it means that we can agree on why an act is morally right or wrong.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Mon Jan 15, 2024 6:49 pm There are no such reasons to be had. "Reason" isn't itself some kind of metaphysical entity prior to God.
It is a reason to you? So be happy with it. I am not convinced though.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Mon Jan 15, 2024 6:49 pmIt is. It's just not a reason that you like or will accept, perhaps. But it's the final reason.You just said because God says so. Because we are the property of God. That is not a reason.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Mon Jan 15, 2024 6:49 pm
I did. You called it "subjective," even though it's an objective argument, about objective facts, and issuing in an objective moral duty.
No, He owes us! We have the right to know why an action is morally right or wrong. We can understand without Him if there was a reason why an act is morally right or wrong, yet we don't have a reason for many acts.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Mon Jan 15, 2024 5:57 pm"Totalitarian"? No. Sovereign, yes. And He sometimes graciously tells us reasons for what He requires of us; but if He doesn't, He doesn't owe them to us, because you don't demand things of God. If God says it, then that's all that really needs to be said. Further reasons are only ever secondary.So God to you is a totalitarian being dictating everything to rational beings, humans, without providing a reason.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Mon Jan 15, 2024 5:57 pm
Yes. Because the child belongs to God, by all rights. She's not the woman's to kill. And the woman herself is also entirely owned by God, by all rights; so she has no legitimate authority to murder her baby.