Veritas Aequitas wrote: ↑Tue Dec 22, 2020 7:56 am
Scott Mayers wrote: ↑Tue Dec 22, 2020 6:21 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: ↑Mon Dec 21, 2020 8:25 am
In your case the above basic principle is applied to the external physical world and its origin, which is absolute nothing.
The only other alternative is Philosophical Anti-Realism which main principle is, a given thing exists in reality interdependently with human knowledge and understanding, which is Kant's Copernican Revolution [.I agree] and others [some I don't agree with] of the like.
Do you have an alternative to the above two distinct philosophical stance? I would be very interested if you can come up with something else which is not reducible to either.
Wait up. I am very able to express my view and you keep overlooking them to try to fit me into labels of other's in a way that attempts to commit me to taking 'sides' of some whole classes of beliefs, but not anything specific. Read those Wiki entries' sentences that assert them AS
general classes of philosophies.
Problem: they assume that you have to have EXCLUSIVE beliefs about reality when I interpret them both as mere PERSPECTIVES that are context-related. One actually is embedded in both,...the anti-real presumption.
Yes, Philosophical Realism and Philosophical Anti-Realism are represented by a general classes of philosophies but they are all reducible to a core principle for each, i.e. which is
- -Philosophical Realism = reality is ULTIMATELY independent of the human conditions,
-Philosophical Anti-Realism = reality is ULTIMATELY interdependent with the human condition.
Note the term 'ultimately' in the above.
For the philosophical anti-realists, reality can be
proximately [not ultimately] independent of the human conditions as in my stance re Empirical Realism but it is ultimately
interdependent with the human conditions.
It is the same with my claims of Moral Realism which is merely proximately independent with the human conditions but ultimately
interdependent with the human conditions.
So contexts is very critical in discussing the above.
My point is your stance is
ultimately Philosophical Realism [PR], i.e. whatever you claim as the final reality is
independent of the human conditions.
Reflect and try to get out of this PR straight-jacket, you cannot.
Bullshit. I just expanded the argument from ONLY the perspective of your 'anti-realist' position given it is inclusive of the 'real', or "interdependent", in your terms here, but ONLY if you can deduce that your 'antireal' intepretation is NOT solipsistic.
I completely disagree with your interpretions of me nor do I see that you have ground to ANY reason if you are so extreme as to add that "I am" (below) is not real either. I understand the Kantian view as meaning precisely to resist interpreting the world AS beyond our perspective through the sensations that are assumed by him and others as 'not (determinately) real'. Then he presumes that you take the IDEA (or form) in mind about the sensations and EXTEND this to reference reality beyond (called, 'transcending'). It doesn't abolish all reasoning such as a Donald Trump would do when denying anything regardless of the presence of evidence (anti-realistically). It either suggests you as not understanding or imposing some insanity on me deceptively for not getting that what is real is somehow equivalent to what is
not real.
You are very confused about the interpretation of Kant and have your own view independent of either the 'realist' or the 'antirealist' philosophically. Anyone who argues for 'empiricism' is defaulting to assume the 'realist' position!! This thus turns what you assume of me around on you. They default to assuming that objects out there are MORE 'real' than simply our independent minds. Otherwise, CONVENING with other science has to be understood as 'antireal' (a delusion). This is NOT the case.
Wikipedia on Anti-realism wrote: In anti-realism, the truth of a statement rests on its demonstrability through internal logic mechanisms, such as the context principle or intuitionistic logic, in direct opposition to the realist notion that the truth of a statement rests on its correspondence to an external, independent reality.[2] In anti-realism, this external reality is hypothetical and is not assumed.[3][4]
This means that the "Anti-realist" is only defaulting to NOT assume that the realities exist outside the senses, something that I wholeheartedly agree with.
But I use the same 'internal logic' to infer the 'realist' position valid by denying 'solipsism' in a logical argument: Since I CAN only default to my existence INTERNALLY, then if the 'images' I see are ALL that still resides in me, the only way that I can deny the outside world is NOT REAL is to take the "solipsistic" position. You are 'solipsitic' if you are strictly unable to INFER THAT a reality exists outside of you. And I see that you got this by now introducing that term, "interdependence" as though you have some
partial appreciation of the existence of the outside world but will not commit to it.
As I had stated before, whatever you postulated as possibly real in reality, it must have only possible empirical elements or their combinations, e.g. horns, horses, thus unicorns are empirically possible. To confirm it is really real, we need to empirical evidence to verify and justify it exists as real.
I exist, therefore SOMETHING exists EMPIRICALLY.
I don't need a formal panel of scientists to agree to this as they too are merely other people I MUST assume are just a part of my 'empirical' environment IN QUESTION, ...like the very 'objects' we are discussing.
So, given 'someting exists' EMPIRICALLY to me, I am either ALL there is or am a SUBSET of some greater environment, right?
NOPE.
There is no problem for scientists or anyone to verify and justify the empirical-you or empirical-I.
What now? How do you even know that 'scientists' or 'anyone' is REAL by the 'anti-realist' position as defined by the Wikipedia entry? All you can tell is that through your senses you infer the reality exists as what transcends from the sensations themselves, a second-hand reflection of the reality out there. As such, you are jumping here to the 'realist' position for assuming any validity to those beings operating even when you are not observing.
But there is serious philosophical issue with the "I-AM."
Note Descartes' I-Think [empirically] therefore I-AM [ontologically].
His error was NOT that. It was his intended goal to begin with that and expect it shold prove 'God exists'. His failure wasn't at the beginning of his reasoning but at the end. The value of his initial postulate, that he exists by "I think, therefore I am" statement is undeniable or perfectly self-evident. He was trying to argue independent of the senses but failed and has thus contributed to the philosophy of science by demonstrating a foundation for empiricism itself, ironically, given that this his postulate actually suffices to BEGIN with the senses but requires INDUCING the reality outside rather than the DEDUCTION he was attempting to prove God by that start. His failure gave an accidental proof that induction is needed to take sense inputs as 'assumptions' external to the premises that are merely 'self-evident'
apriori. That is, any deductive arguments that speak about reality require ASSUMING something from outside by INDUCING patterns from the senses. This is the first step in 'observing' without bias to the presume the objects out there exist because your senses are only a perspective of the 'real' world.
The Philosophical Realists will insist there is an "I-AM" that is independent of the "I-Think" and many concluded that is an independent "I-AM" i.e. a soul that survive physical death.
Note Jesus' "Before Abraham was, I-AM."
You must have missed anything I discussed on religion and my intensive use of connecting etymological roots of religious terms to secular labels that have meaning. I use it to demonstrate the memetic links to Egypt's history, not an independent Jewish or Hebrew post interpretion. I extend this to Christianity and so "I am" is where "Je suis" comes from. I have written a lot on this. But the 'before Abraham' is news to me. "Ab- ra- ham" (Father sees all); Adam, Aten, Odin, Atum, Autumn, Item, Eden, are all related for instance as relations of the sun's position in the sky; 'ra' is used in most sources that can be summarily referred to as 'light' or 'sound' or any energy based upon the lion's growl and the male's dominant main as it represents the sun's
rays! [but this is off topic and addictively distracting to me

]
Back on topic, your interpretation lacks clear differentiation. Decartes was only asserting THAT he exists as 'self-evident'. So it is both empirical AND a logical apriorism that are valid AND sound. I won't respond to the rest of what you said on this point because what I've said just above is sufficient to dismiss the other additions.
Veritas Aequitas wrote:
This is why reading and understanding the extensive philosophical views is so critical and useful.
From your last sentence, I think you are not even understanding the views you read. I can see that you completely misinterpret the sources. So how am I to extend this to even others besides the disagreement of Kant that you impose an opposite meaning to? I can't argue for him but only from what you quoted and what I can read in summary of him from other sources. He is a
transcendental idealist which means that the IDEA in one's mind is ALL that we have to interpret the outside world with (including ourselves as 'objects') and so assumes the objects out there are never able to be certain, including those other people who 'observe'.
Regardless of your agreement to this or not, this is WHAT I am saying: We can only judge what it 'real' from the perspective of the sensations as 'ideas' (symbols) to which we INFER reality anywhere AS the ideas in mind themselves. This is a 'realistic' position that only gets the label, 'anti-real' if you also presume that the sensations themselves don't count as SOMETHING you sense. I'm confused at what you are intepreting otherwise and why I'd rather you speak for yourself too, rather than get me to interpret your opinion against mine as 'proven' beyond my capacity to validate other people's works. Just speak for your own view minus the labels that you don't define yourself. I am unable to follow your meaning otherwise.
Let me quote also what I read of that same Wikipedia entry:
Wikipedia: Anti-realism wrote:
One kind of metaphysical anti-realism maintains a skepticism about the physical world, arguing either: 1) that nothing exists outside the mind, or 2) that we would have no access to a mind-independent reality, even if it exists.
Again, very agreeable. But I argue for (2) and not (1). The way I'm arguing for Absolute Nothing here doesn't need more than recognizing one's existence,
that there is an external world defined by one's inability to absolutely control it solipsistically, and that you can infer Absolute Nothing by reasoning in your head alone. I'm trying, afterall, to prove how you CAN discover reality without resort to 'science' in principle, ignoring what I propose later on given I may not be able to. So you can PRETEND that (1) is true as well, that "
nothing exists outside the mind" (as a postulate) or, prefertially, infer that 'nothing' is meaningful and real, that the Absolutes I presented are sufficient extremes that exhaustively cover the foundations of Totality very logically as I've argued and continue to do so here, and thus establish that the 'background' root of all existence can be derivable from Absolutely Nothing. [I will stop using 'origin' as no one can get that I'm not referencing a 'time when' there was Absolutely Nothing but that it is a property inclusive to the meaning of Totality as a 'backdrop' just as locally in this Universe, space, matter, and energy would be 'empty' at a singularity (if this could occur).]
====
Veritas Aequitas wrote:
Scott Mayers wrote:Thus I can call myself at this initiating stage, "Totality OR some part of Totality, where the label, "Totality" can just as easily be my arbitrary name for WHATEVER reality is.
But what is certain, is that the label's referent of me being all that is real (solipsistically) or some part of it, the MEANING of Totality is nevertheless REAL.
I don't have to question whether reality actually exists apart from me or not at this stage because "Totality" exists independently for being true of BOTH the 'realist' and the 'anti-realist'.
Nope.
Note I stated for the anti-realist, independence is only a
proximate truth[note this term] but not an
ultimate truth.
For the realist like yourself, independence is the
ultimate truth.
For you as a philosophical realist, that TOTALITY which you deduced is independent of the human conditions in the ultimate sense.
For philosophical anti-realists like me, an ' independent totality' is empirical and merely a proximate truth but not an ultimate truth. For me, whatever is reality, all-there-is or totality is ultimately empirical and interdependent with the human conditions. Note,
Humans are the Co-Creator of Reality [totality] They are In
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=31180
This is odd wording. You appear to be asserting that no reality exists UNLESS humans exist to observe it! Hmmm....sounds like the Solipsistic egocentric view of reality when you have to accept yourself as arbitor of reality. You cannot have special licence to just pick and choose when you want to except others as 'real' (anti-real by you?) where they agree with you and 'not real' (real by you) where they don't. Extending your argument to include opinions of others through 'empiricism' is now jumping to the realist position
conveniently and what is confusing me of your views here.
The empirical method BEGINS with each of our OWN capacity to observe and to judge 'reality' as AT LEAST
THAT which we perceive.
Note that I looked at "Transcendental Idealism" and "Absolute Idealism", both with the subtle distinctions except that the Absolute Idealism is an approach I share with Hegel. I noticed that the Wikipedia for "
Transcendental Idealism" asserts:
Wikipedia: Transcendental Idealism wrote:Transcendental idealism is a doctrine founded by German philosopher Immanuel Kant in the 18th century. Kant's doctrine is found throughout his Critique of Pure Reason (1781). Kant argues that the conscious subject cognizes the objects of experience not as they are in themselves, but only the way they appear to us under the conditions of our sensibility. Thus Kant's doctrine restricts the scope of our cognition to appearances given to our sensibility and denies that we can possess cognition of things as they are in themselves, i.e. things as they are independently of how we experience them through our cognitive faculties.
In the "Transcendental Aesthetic" section of the Critique of Pure Reason, Kant outlines how space and time are pure forms of human intuition contributed by our own faculty of sensibility. Space and time do not have an existence "outside" of us, but are the "subjective" forms of our sensibility and hence the necessary a priori conditions under which the objects we encounter in our experience can appear to us at all. Kant describes time and space as "empirically real" but transcendentally ideal.
Although the underlined term may seem to fit with your interpretation of allowance for "empirical" reality, it presumes that one only 'extends' (transcends) this by inference as I have done by using 'solipsism' to prove that something OTHER than myself exists. This is what assures THAT a 'real world' exists and thus qualifies for being 'empirically' real.
When I looked up "Absolute Idealism", I also approve of Hegel's approach and is who first introduced the concept of 'contradiction' as a dynamic function of reality rather than something to dismiss. He uses very awkward language because he IS the first and also attempts, as Descartes did, to argue for God. [I get most of his method through Karl Marx' arguments for cycles in politics, ...his 'Material Dialectic'] That is, he introduced what others more sensibly called 'multivariable' logic, and is what the creators of set theories did indirectly by showing that you can represent dynamic relations STATICALLY, thus enabling one to see how you CAN demonstrate reality of change by using only sets. Hegel didn't know how to do this without assuming a dynamic process. Though the difference is subtle, my argument about the allowance for Absolute Nothing to exist given there is no laws extant there, its very 'contradiction' can be thought to be dynamically a 'force' OR, statically, as a background, both of which I used in my arguments. Thus I relate to both types of Idealism to some degree. I just have not read their complete works to assert that I share all the same views, ...certainly none that expect a proof of 'God'. But Karl Marx picked up on this too. And he too is athiest as I am! I won't even try to raise more issues regarding others. But note that I agreed with Plato with a large degree regarding 'absolutes' as the "most general form" of something, that is itself not directly something one can 'observe' but only infer (as the metaphor of "the Cave" was set up to demonstrate).
.....
I interpret the 'realist' from your perspective as those proposing that reality exists beyond our senses and you may think that I cannot 'know' objects outside of me.
That is 'solipsistic' and implies that if I was all there was, I would require proving this TO MYSELF, by something as simply as demanding that I shall wish a "unicorn" to exist. "Abracadabra".....(I wait),.....nope, no unicorn.
Thus this proves to me EMPIRICALLY, that I either lack the power to BE totally all there is -- except possibly if I opted to 'forget' that I was playing some game as a 'god'.
Regardless, I lack BOTH the ability to assert that I am Totality (for not being able to have power to pop 'outside' of my perspective) nor that the images are not themselves just a layer of the same,...as an 'image' of an 'image'.
Thus, neither the 'real' nor 'anti-real' positions relate to what is or is not real but only perspectives one WANTS to assert is the starting point to reason about the sensations.
Note
Solipsism is an Incoherent Concept,
https://iep.utm.edu/solipsis/#H7
thus it has no philosophical teeth at all.
For the philosophical anti-realists, they are only concern with what is empirically known and if not yet known, it must be empirically possible to be verified and justified empirically and philosophically.
Philosophical anti-realist don't give a damn with an independent totality beyond the human conditions. What is the use of such knowledge?
On the other hand, philosophical realists merely speculate their reality and totality exists beyond human conditions purely for psychological reasons as I had mentioned many times.
At the end of one extreme, theists as philosophical realists jumped to conclusion there exists an independent reality and an independent God merely to soothe their dissonance and selfish drive for salvation. Such belief in an illusion had been malignant and had brought forth terrible evils and sufferings to humanity.
From 'No Man's Land' to 'La La Land'
At another end of a benign extreme, philosophical realists like you are driven to a totality that is independent of the human conditions to soothe some smaller degree of dissonance.
Btw, what utility has your theory to mankind other than for your own consonance.
This is just my view, you would disagree.
Ha! I use it as a mere BASE to my scientific theory to make it into a real THEOREM, a logical argument that step by step can explain reality up to the chemistry. That is, I can CLOSE physics as a logical argument that literally describes what matter, space, and energy is. It is no more 'psychological' than anyone's ability to stick to some career goal. Would you call someone's career 'obsessive', for instance? Of course. So I don't know your reference to some kind of mental delusion here, something you are implying with innuendo.
I already KNOW that the solipsist argument is not real. But this is due to reasoning FIRST from a private position that assumes it just as I interpret Kant doing. But the anti-realist according to that quote above to the Wikipedia page suggests that he was only extending idealism to realism making both true. [the ideal transcends the image of the senses to real objects but only by prepostulating no (certain) real objects as a given, only their images.
I certainly do NOT fit in with your interpretation of me being a 'realist'. I am 'realistic' but would fit more appropriately (as should be evident by my arguments) as philosophically idealist and lean towards the Absolute Idealism. The reason I hate borrowing other labels is precisely because I didn't get to choose the labels. Older labels tend to FLIP meaning at times to which one era might interpret 'cool' as meaning 'hot' or vice versa. (I happen to think they can be the same too if you catch my drift!!

)