Immanuel Can wrote:
There must be at least a causal "why," even if you discount the possibility of a teleological one.
Me: And also, you can never answer a 'why?' question, for example if the answer was 'God' we would just move onto 'Why God?'
Analytically incoherent. You can only ask "why" for events that have a beginning...like scientifically, we know that the universe does. We cannot ask, "Why is 2+2 = 4...it's analytic in the nature of what we are positing to be as described. We can argue over its empirical existence, if we wish; but it makes no sense to make irrational and self-contradictory postulates about it, like "a god with a why." It's like "a bachelor with a wife."
'The universe' only has a beginning because we choose to draw a line between two states. So, the universe in the form it exists post Big Bang can be said to have a beginning (and that beginning would be the Big Bang). However if by 'universe' we just mean 'whatever was the case' then it would not have a beginning.
Similarly, to say the universe was started by God is only possible if we start by differentiating God from the universe. But if God is distinct from the universe, then the universe doesn't need God as its creator. Alternatively, if the universe is contained within God, then God did not start it since the universe and God would be the same thing.
So maybe the real question is, "Has God spoken?"
And how would we answer that?
We'd go see if He'd done it.
..since scripture is written (and understood) by humans, why can't it just be humans speaking?
Which "scripture"? For some, it clearly COULD be just humans speaking. But if God has spoken in one or another Scripture, that would be different.
And has he? I gather you find the order of the universe enough to convince you that there is a Creator, but what has formed your idea of that Creator? For example, how do we know whether he is interested or indifferent, whether he wants us to behave in a particular way, and if so, which way?
You seem reluctant to give a clear answer. Is this because this aspect is personal, not the sort of reason that can be argued as true or false?
Me: But how to settle who is right, and who is deluded? You or the Saudi?
I suggest an open court. Let him bring his "god" to the dock, and let the others come as well. Let us see which One stands up to all the tests of integrity, coherence, truthfulness, justice, and so on.
But let us not do this: let us not shut down the argument out of a misguided sense of multiculturalist tolerance. Let's make every view take the test, and make our minds up based on the evidence, back off out of a fear of seeing the evidence.
Leaving aside that the Saudi would say that his God was the same as that of the Christians and the Jews, I do not see how we can place God in the dock. If we were to try him it would have to be against higher standards than his own, which would require a meta-God to act as judge.
Oh, agreed. Did I not already say repeatedly that just because one espouses an ideology -- good or bad -- that does not imply one is following it? ...
The problem with the "No True Scotsman" fallacy is that being Scottish has nothing to do with what one does: but does being a Christian? Think again: for if we say, "No true humanitarian eats babies for lunch," are we guilty of the "No True Scotsman" fallacy? By analytics, surely not: for to be a humanitarian means to have regard for humans, no? And to devour babies for lunch indicates something quite different.
The 'no true Scotsman' analogy is supposed to be about behaviour.
No Scotsman would do X - Then what about Hamish? He does X? - Then Hamish is no true Scotsman '. The Muslim says: I
f Muslims are bad, it is because they are not true Muslims. And if Christians are good, it is because they are not true Christians. It is a tactic open to every religion and none. Why did the Marxist atheist regimes kill so many? Because their communism became
'like a religion'. So that humanitarian who eats babies does not discredit humanitarians, since they were no true humanitarian.
'
By their fruits ye shall know them' can be to do the same thing.
'Look at the wicked deeds of those Christians!'. Answer:
By their fruits ye shall know them, so they can't be Christians.
I think this is always going to be a problem if we try to use human behaviour as evidence about ideologies. Suppose we did it with philosophy; judged the validity of an argument by the personal character of the philosopher who used it? Besides, the Bible is full of stories about people who did bad things, yet were chosen to serve God's purpose. Perhaps it might be as well to remember:
Judge not, that ye be not judged!