-1- wrote: ↑Wed Oct 25, 2017 6:36 am
Immanuel Can, I think our conversation has run its course, and if I picked up on your last missive, we'd be just repeating things already said.
Taking your ball and going home, then?

Because really, you haven't solved the issue.
The OP asks how God could fail to convey His message...and so far, all you've shown is that you have no idea whether or not the message has even "failed" to be "conveyed," since you're not even able to say definitively who are the relevant "hearers." Consequently, you have no reason to say the message has "failed" at all -- let alone that the perceived "failure" is on God's end of the communication line.
What's missing is YOUR definition of Christians, but it's not necessary to be given to see my argument, only to see your side, and since you refuse to give your definition of a Christian,
I do not, as a matter of fact. I have not given it YET, but I have one, and will be happy to give it in due time, should it prove relevant to where we go. I was waiting for you to sort out
your own thinking first. After all, you were the one who was claiming that the "message" had "failed" to be received sufficiently by "Christians." I wanted to see if you had any idea
whom you were even talking about.
Now, all I need from you is an answer to what you will accept as a better answer. If you give me the criteria you would accept even to
judge the question, I'll be happy to help you out. What we've established so far is that one criterion that will not work is to say, "Everybody who says 'I'm a Christian' actually is." And that's a huge step forward from blank ignorance on the question.
But without it, the scoundrel's resort follows: that is, one is always tempted to accuse anyone who actually HAS relevant criteria of the "No True Scotsman" fallacy...essentially, accusing them as follows: "If you have criteria for what constitutes a Christian, you're arbitrary / bigoted / incorrect," or whatever. It's rubbish, of course; but it's the route some people go.
However,
if you're prepared to concede the insufficiency of allowing the self-identification criterion as adequate, then we're past that...The NTS fallacy can no longer apply, since you would be abandoning the supposition that all true "Christians" were the ones who self-identified as such, and thus conceding that at least some
untrue "Scotsman" exist, in this situation.
So, just to be sure, I'll ask: are we both content to reject the
self-identification criterion as adequate?
