Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Sat Aug 08, 2026 4:08 pm
A) Of course you do. Because you've arbitrarily decided that all religious beliefs are "superstititions," so NONE of them is true.
B) No, the axiom was
"no such thing as an infinite regress OF CAUSES." The cascade of prerequisites is an essential part of the description. You've conveniently eliminated it, in order to make the claim look wrong. It's not. But you have to take the entire claim.
C) And I didn't say anything at all about "outside" any "box." It's just plain true.
D) If I call you "High King Mike, Supreme Overlord of Gath," I'm not merely naming you: I'm pointing out your rank and station, which is a super-important point. Likewise, "First Cause" is not merely a "name": it's the description of function.
A) ---- You ENTIRELY misunderstand what I am doing. I am arguing that "there is a god" is not DERIVABLE from anything about the material realm. That ALSO means "there is no god" is equally not derivable << else you could set up proof assuming "there is a god" and demonstrate this contradicts something true about the material realm >>
This is not unique to "there is (or is not) a god". It is true even of "arithmetic. I will refer you to Godel's Theorem.
NOT PROVABLE DOES NOT MEAN FALSE.
You are using the term "superstitions" in a different sense than I am. You think I need to believe a "religion" TRUE for it to be useful. Maybe we need to discuss "what are religions good for" (or not) but that would be a different thread. I suspect we would be in disagreement there too, you thinking "unless provably true, not useful" and since I clearly believe NOT provably true (or false) that part of it irrelevant.
B) Precisely your problem with refusal to use symbolic logic, drawing conclusions from NAMES. There is nothing special about the relation "causes" not shared with every other relation that has exactly the same axioms defining it, that behaves the same way.
If you have a relation R on x's, and from the axioms defining R and x's you conclude "there must be a first "", then it true for all R's that share those axioms. IF you claim something special about the relation C, "causes", you have to produce the axiom that makes it so. The axiom in the set for C different from the set for R.
C) It is demonstrably NOT true "outside the box" << this "box" business is just a modern way of expressing one of Churches axioms of logic >> I can easily demonstrate a set of things for which not true. You can certainly take it as true for yourself, but will have no way of convincing anybody else. You are CLAIMING as true "causes not infinite regression" and then using that to supposedly prove "causes not infinite regression", DUH!
D) Precisely the error. You are calling me "High King Mike, Supreme Overlord of Gath," and not merely naming you: I'm pointing out your rank and station, which is a super-important point.
Does your calling me/naming me "Supreme Overlord of Gath" make me supreme overlord of Gath? . No? Then why does calling.naming "a thing X that has no cause" a "First Cause" make X a cause. You COULD have named "a thing that has no cause" a "TaTiHoNiC". You still think that makes it a "first cause". You object to my claiming (based on the axioms) "a "first cause" doesn't have to cause anything". My placing "first cause" in quotes indicates it is a NAME. REMEMBER -- we do not have (and do not want to have) among our axioms of "causes" "if X is a thing then the exists a thing Y such that X is the cause of Y" (all things cause something else). We do NOT believe of the relation "causes" that it behaves this way. We derived "there exists at least one first cause starting a causal chain" (using "causes" not infinite regression) . Not that there weren't other first causes of that same chain*, other chains*, or even no chain (though in that case "cause" in the name deceptive).
TRY IT (if you don't believe me). Try to derive "if X has no cause then X causes something" (there is a Y such that X causes Y). You are perhaps being misled by believing "there is only one first cause" (that you have this). In concluding from "a causal chain chain has to start somewhere that there is an X that "starts it off" and EVEN IF you add an axiom to get "there is only one such X that starts off any and all causal chains" that does NOT let you conclude the non-existence of other X's that do not start any causal chains << again, your (unfortunate) choice of name lets you think you have this >>
* Same chain --- we do not believe of causes "if y is a cause of x then three is no z such that z is a cause of x -- so a causal chain can branch going backward. It can also branch going forward since we don't believe of "causes" that if X causes Y, then there is no Z different from Y that X causes (we believe a thing can cause more than one other thing).
Different chains --- we have not shown "if things X and Y exist, then they are in the same causal chain. You (think) you have this because you (think) you have "everything has a single FIRST CAUSE".
Assume A and X exist -- you are arguing A has cause B, B has cause C ... starting with a first cause, and that X has cause Y, Y has cause Z ... starting with a first cause. HOW are you going to show these are the same first cause (that A and X are in the same causal chain).