RCSaunders wrote: ↑Fri Apr 16, 2021 4:53 pm
Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Fri Apr 16, 2021 2:37 am
... the God who made him and endowed him with those rights. ... God gave a man life, liberty and the right to behave as a steward of property entrusted to his care ...
"He," did? Well I have never found that passage in the Bible.
Try the first chapter of Genesis (1:26-31). God gave mankind life, volition and stewardship.
So what do you think if one of His creatures decides to deprive another person of that life, that liberty or of accountability for his stewardship? Against Whom is his real offence, then?
Locke was not in doubt. Here is what he said:
“The state of nature has a law of nature to govern it, which obliges every one: and reason, which is that law, teaches all mankind, who will but consult it, that being all equal and independent, no one ought to harm another in his life, health, liberty, or possessions: for men being all the workmanship of one omnipotent, and infinitely wise maker; all the servants of one sovereign master, sent into the world by his order, and about his business; they are his property, whose workmanship they are, made to last during his, not one another’s pleasure: and being furnished with like faculties, sharing all in one community of nature, there cannot be supposed any such subordination among us, that may authorize us to destroy one another, as if we were made for one another’s uses, as the inferior ranks of creatures are for ours.”
In fact, the word, "rights," does not appear anywhere in the Bible.
Well, of course the word "right" does, and frequently, too: 949 times, in fact. But it's not the usage of "right" in the context we mean, of course. What you mean is that the term or concept "human rights" does not occur. And that's true.
In fact, "human rights" is just a term we use to
summarize a deduction we get from the facts laid out in the Bible. But if you want to drop that term, it will not change the fact that the deduction is valid, obviously. And we can substitute any other label we like: let's call them "things God gives to all men," then.
Fine?
Wouldn't you think, if rights were real and were so important they'd get mentioned at least once?
No, not at all, necessarily. They could, but it doesn't have to be so.
There are other terms we have also coined to describe deductions we get from the Bible, or from other documents, or even from scientific facts. The word "gravity" does not appear in nature...or, for that matter, in the Bible. However, I think we both see the deduction, and the human coinage, as necessary and reasonable, in that case. So human beings are quite free to coin new words to describe concepts they discover from deductions.
The basic question is only this:
did the fact that God created mankind in the first place, gave him life, gave him independent volition and a charge of stewardship in the world -- for which God holds mankind personally responsible at the Judgment (or, as Locke called it "The Great Day,") imply that mankind has any rights? Is it correct, then, to say that mankind was "endowed by his Creator" with "unalienable rights," which include "life, liberty and property"?
If it
does imply that, then even if you insist there's no God, then you'd have to concede that people who DO believe in God are being consistent and rational to maintain their belief in human rights also. And if you believe there's no God, then a Theist will have to concede to you that you are totally warranted in maintaining your belief that no such things as human rights exist.
That seems fair, does it not? You are allowed to be rational on the terms of what you believe to be true of the origins and nature of things; and I am allowed to be rational on the basis of what I also believe to be true about the origins and nature of things.