Immanuel Can wrote:...
Step 1: There is no possibility of an actual infinite regress of causes. We can deduce this from mathematics and from empirical observation (entropy, the Red Shift Effect, etc.). ...
Nope, these just say that what we can see of the observable universe appears to have had a beginning but the theory is that it's not 'Space' that had a beginning but 'SpaceTime' however it is only of the observable universe and all it says is that Physics can't say anything about what went on before, if anything. IC's claim that there is no possibility from empirical observation is very strange given that elsewehere he has stated that such things cannot be 100%? He also appears to ignore that Aristotle is dead with respect to deducing things about reality and mathematics even more so as if this wasn't the case we'd not have physicists. An infinite regress of causes is no more or less possible than an uncaused cause and if IC says there can be an uncasused cause then it can be just as probable or not that the universe could be such a thing as it could be that there is an uncaused 'God'.
This means that we know logically and deductively that the Earth HAD to have a beginning.
We know the Earth had a beginning as we appear to understand planetary and stellar formation reasonably well now.
Step 2: That which has a beginning has a cause. The Earth had a beginning (step 1), therefore we know it had a cause.
But do we know the universe had a beginning? Given that we only know the light-cone(sphere) that we can detect, gravitational waves may cause us to revise this position.
On this point, does this mean that this 'God' had no beginning? If so then it doesn't exist.
Step 3: Principle of Sufficient Reason (Leibniz): any proposed "cause" must be adequate to explain the "effect" attributed to it. (If something is inadequate to "cause" a second thing, it cannot be reasonable to say it DID cause that second thing.)
How is this 'God' adequate enough to cause all the things we so far can see?
Step 4: What would be most adequate as an explanatory cause of the kind of universe in which we live? (Here we are thrown on empirical and inductive methodology, seeking the hypothesis that gives the best, most probable explanation.)
Depends what he wants or means by an explanation? If you say 'God' did it you're not explaining much unless of course you then drape this 'God' with a whole chunk of attributes that you cannot possible know about. If you do do this then the safest explanation is that you have an agenda that you wish to foist upon others.
That's where atto bailed. But I'm still entertaining ideas. ...
No he isn't. He's clearly made his mind up.
What is the most probable and sufficient cause for the universe as we observe it? ...
No-one knows but with respect to the things it is made up of, Biology, Chemistry and Evolution appears to deal with living things, Chemistry, Physics and Geology the rest.
I suppose the next point would be where people offer possible explanations, given our empirical observations of things like scientific laws, order, life, death, symbiosis, consciousness, morality, communication and so on, in an effort to day what the relevant data were. But I'll leave that to whomever cares to offer an observation.
I think, given it's a philosophy forum, that we should listen to Kant and say bugger all.
