Re: compatibilism
Posted: Wed Nov 08, 2023 2:01 pm
Here's the original quote:
So, let's break this quote into 2 parts: the part BEFORE he says 'on the other hand', and the part after. That's fair, I think -- you normally say 'on the other hand' if you're about to say something that contrasts with what you said prior, so the latter stuff should be a break, in some sence, from the prior stuff.And, of course, what he likes or dislikes is also compatible with determinism as he understands it.
Then what he wants or does not want and Schopenhauer's assessment of that.
"Man can do what he wants, but man can't want what he wants." It was Arthur Schopenhauer who wrote: “Man does at all times only what he wills, and yet he does this necessarily." the philosopher's shirt
On the other hand...
"Schopenhauer argues that all human actions are causally necessitated, as are all other events in empirical nature, hence there is no freedom in the sense of liberum arbitrium indifferentiae. However, our sense of responsibility or agency (being the 'doers of our deeds') is nonetheless unshakeable." Cambridge University Press
Same thing? Is our "unshakeable sense of responsibility" but one more inherent manifestation of the psychological illusion of free will?
Now, the first part of what he said is where the specific quote in question is:
It's of course clear to me, and it should be to you, that not a single word of this is about questioning the legitimacy of things said in determinism. Schopenhauer's words don't say anything at all to that effect, nor do any of biggy's. Schopenhauer himself is a compatibilist, so it's unlikely he himself "questions the legitimacy of things said in determinism" -- that's generally not what compatibilists think.Then what he wants or does not want and Schopenhauer's assessment of that.
"Man can do what he wants, but man can't want what he wants." It was Arthur Schopenhauer who wrote: “Man does at all times only what he wills, and yet he does this necessarily." the philosopher's shirt
However, in the second part of biggy's quote above, he gives the only HINT (and it is just a hint, it's not explicit - it's ambiguous, remember) that he might be talking about his age-old bullshittery about "questioning the legitimacy of things said in determinism", and that is when he says this: "one more inherent manifestation of the psychological illusion of free will?"
Note that that quote, the only HINT towards your intepretation, only comes into his post AFTER he says 'on the other hand' - it is separated, in complete contrast, from the part of the quote in question, the first half, where he rambles on about 'then this, then that'.
If he meant for the first half to be questioning the legitimacy of things said in determinism, why would his only HINT that that's what he's talking about be said AFTER saying 'on the other hand'?
That's not clear communication. That's... ambiguous.