Reconciling Determinism and Free Will: A Compatibilist Perspective
Innocent Ociti
Incompatibilists argue that if our actions are predetermined, then we cannot be said to act freely, as we have no control over them. They argue that free will requires that our actions be undetermined so that we can choose to act in one way or another. This view has been defended by philosophers such as Immanuel Kant and John Stuart Mill.
An interesting point here is that Kant was religious and Mill was not. And that's important because from a religious frame of mind, of
course we have free will! After all, God includes
that in our very "soul".
On the other hand, if you are "an agnostic and a skeptic"? If so, then, beyond defining or deducing free will into existence, how did Mill himself actually go about demonstrating that we have it?
As for incompatibilism itself, that gets tricky:
"Incompatibilism is the thesis that free will is incompatible with the truth of determinism. Incompatibilists divide into libertarianians, who deny that determinism is true and hard determinists who deny that we have free will." philpapers
So, those at both ends of the debate here can describe themselves as incompatibilists.
Compatibilists, on the other hand, argue that free will and causal determinism can coexist. They argue that even if our actions are determined by prior causes, we can still act freely and take responsibility for our actions. They argue that free will is not the ability to act in a way that is completely independent of prior causes, but rather the ability to act on our desires and motivations. This view has been defended by philosophers such as David Hume and Daniel Dennett.
Again, way, way, way up in the philosophical clouds, words can be strung together into arguments such that depending on how you define the words, we either do or do not have free will. Like the words above.
Now, explain this to me...
How are our "desires and motivations" able to "escape" a brain that is wholly in sync with the laws of matter? How "for all practical purposes" are we not back to Schopenhauer's "A man can do what he wants, but not want what he wants"?
Though, again, I admit that I am simply not understand his point correctly. That somehow
for all practical purposes we
can want what we want.
On the other hand, my argument in regard to the assumption that we do have free will here is that what we come to want is rooted existentially in dasein. And that philosophically in the is/ought world there does not appear to be a way for ethicists to establish what all rational and virtuous men and women
ought to want.