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Re: Does A causes B imply that time exists?

Posted: Mon Feb 09, 2015 5:24 pm
by Cerveny
Philosophy Explorer wrote:It would seem so since there must be a passage of time to go from A to B.
PhilX
"ΔA causes B" implies that time (history) exists...
(A, B are supposed real - not abstract)
"x>0 and y>x => y>0" does not imply that time exists
but
"Δv (change of speed) causes something" implies it
(Δv supposes at least two different time layers/sediments of reality)

Re: Does A causes B imply that time exists?

Posted: Mon Feb 09, 2015 11:08 pm
by jackles
B has to be distingishable from A. Its the distingishable difference that time is an aspect of. If A is certain as in absolute B must be uncertain to distinguish it from A. But the uncertainty is a tempory. B will go back to its A state when its uncertain time state resolves its uncertainty. So A is certain A B is uncertain.