Is morality objective or subjective?

Should you think about your duty, or about the consequences of your actions? Or should you concentrate on becoming a good person?

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Peter Holmes
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sun May 07, 2023 4:42 am
Peter Holmes wrote: Sat May 06, 2023 2:43 pm VA is a moralist, with a strong sense of the need to oppose evil and promote goodness. That what constitutes evil and goodness is a matter of opinion, which is subjective - which single and simple fact demolishes moral objectivism at a stroke - is anathema to VA. Hence his sprawlingly absurd attempts to construct a moral objectivity that won't stand up for a moment.

Some theistic moral objectivists here argue that, if [my team's] god doesn't exist, then there are no moral facts, morality is dead, and anything goes. As a fellow atheist, I agree with VA that belief in gods is irrational. But we part company at the claim that there are moral facts - only not divinely ordained or inspired ones.

There can be no such thing as a moral fact, whether or not there are gods. And I maintain that we're morally better off without both gods and moral objectivity. It's called growing up.
As I had countered, you are relying on a delusional 'what is fact' to claim there are no moral facts.

There are Two Senses of 'What is Fact'
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39587

PH's What is Fact is Illusory
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39577

PH's Philosophical Realism is Illusory
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39992[/list]

You have not countered my above threads against your claims.

You are also relying on a delusional sense of 'what is objectivity'
Two Senses of 'Objective'
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39326
And I maintain that we're morally better off without both gods and moral objectivity. It's called growing up.
Again, you are blabbering.

Note;
Scientific Objectivity
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39286

I argued my 'what is moral objectivity' from a human-based moral FSK is equivalent to scientific objectivity based on a human-based science-FSK.
Are we better off without scientific objectivity?

Your posts here are very infantile and very philosophically immature which are merely blabbering without references at all to support your points.
Objectivity is reliance on facts rather than opinions. And we're definitely better off with objectivity - as the success of natural science and its dependent technologies demonstrates.

But you haven't shown that moral objectivity even exists, let alone that it's near-equivalent to scientific objectivity. You just say that it is. It's a claim without evidence.

Here's your argument, stripped of its obfuscatory clutter.

P1 What we call a fact exists within/depends on/emerges from (blah, blah) a credible framework and system of knowledge.
P2 There is a credible morality framework and system of knowledge.
C Therefore, there are moral facts.

I assume you don't understand why this is useless, and so why you need to bin it. But - does anyone else think it can be repaired?
Veritas Aequitas
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Joined: Wed Jul 11, 2012 4:41 am

Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Peter Holmes wrote: Sun May 07, 2023 6:11 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sun May 07, 2023 4:42 am
Peter Holmes wrote: Sat May 06, 2023 2:43 pm VA is a moralist, with a strong sense of the need to oppose evil and promote goodness. That what constitutes evil and goodness is a matter of opinion, which is subjective - which single and simple fact demolishes moral objectivism at a stroke - is anathema to VA. Hence his sprawlingly absurd attempts to construct a moral objectivity that won't stand up for a moment.

Some theistic moral objectivists here argue that, if [my team's] god doesn't exist, then there are no moral facts, morality is dead, and anything goes. As a fellow atheist, I agree with VA that belief in gods is irrational. But we part company at the claim that there are moral facts - only not divinely ordained or inspired ones.

There can be no such thing as a moral fact, whether or not there are gods. And I maintain that we're morally better off without both gods and moral objectivity. It's called growing up.
As I had countered, you are relying on a delusional 'what is fact' to claim there are no moral facts.

There are Two Senses of 'What is Fact'
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39587

PH's What is Fact is Illusory
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39577

PH's Philosophical Realism is Illusory
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39992[/list]

You have not countered my above threads against your claims.

You are also relying on a delusional sense of 'what is objectivity'
Two Senses of 'Objective'
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39326
And I maintain that we're morally better off without both gods and moral objectivity. It's called growing up.
Again, you are blabbering.

Note;
Scientific Objectivity
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39286

I argued my 'what is moral objectivity' from a human-based moral FSK is equivalent to scientific objectivity based on a human-based science-FSK.
Are we better off without scientific objectivity?

Your posts here are very infantile and very philosophically immature which are merely blabbering without references at all to support your points.
Objectivity is reliance on facts rather than opinions. And we're definitely better off with objectivity - as the success of natural science and its dependent technologies demonstrates.
Note as I had highlighted above, there are two senses of what are facts and what is objectivity.
Your arguments are based on the delusional sense of 'what is fact' and 'what is objectivity.'
But you haven't shown that moral objectivity even exists, let alone that it's near-equivalent to scientific objectivity. You just say that it is. It's a claim without evidence.
I had argued, whatever is conditioned to a specific human based FSK [collective based] is by default 'objective' i.e. independent of ONE subject.
There is no denial 'morality' is an element within human nature and when this is conditioned upon a human-based FSK, then morality is objective. [A]
The question is whether such morality has a high degree of objective and is credible and reliable.
Here's your argument, stripped of its obfuscatory clutter.

P1 What we call a fact exists within/depends on/emerges from (blah, blah) a credible framework and system of knowledge.
P2 There is a credible morality framework and system of knowledge.
C Therefore, there are moral facts.

I assume you don't understand why this is useless, and so why you need to bin it. But - does anyone else think it can be repaired?
There is no denial, the following syllogism is valid,
  • P1 What we call a fact exists and emerges from within a framework and system of knowledge.
    P2 There is a morality framework and system of knowledge. see [A] above
    C Therefore, there are moral facts.
I have justified the credibility and reliability of my proposed morality FSK elsewhere as equivalent to the human-based science FSK to ensure it is sound, credible and reliable.
I assume you don't understand why this is useless, and so why you need to bin it. But - does anyone else think it can be repaired?
You are so ignorant.
There are already existing moral FSKs which are objective, but their objectivity are low, but they are not useless, but rather have contributed positively to humanity.
By definition, the current theistic, deontological, utilitarianism, consequentialism are also moral FSKs, albeit with different degrees of objectivity.

For example, the Christian-theistic-moral-FSK which is objective but merely 0.001/100 degree of objectivity, nevertheless its maxims i.e. love all even enemies, give the other cheek, in principle, has contributed to reduce the number of humans killed by humans [moral progress] in contrast to before it emerged.
There are other moral FSKs with higher degrees of objectivity than the Christianity-Moral-FSK.

What I had proposed is an objective human based moral FSK that leveraged on the human scientific-FSK [has the highest and the standard objectivity], thus has a higher degree of objectivity than existing ones.
Peter Holmes
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sun May 07, 2023 6:31 am
I had argued, whatever is conditioned to a specific human based FSK [collective based] is by default 'objective' i.e. independent of ONE subject.
Nope. Objectivity is reliance on facts - features of reality that are or were the case, regardless of opinion. So objectivity is not independence from one person's opinion. It's independence from opinion altogether. Your equation of objectivity with intersubjective opinion is obviously incorrect.

P1 What we call a fact exists and emerges from within a framework and system of knowledge.
P2 There is a morality framework and system of knowledge.
C Therefore, there are moral facts.
I assume you understand the difference between deductive validity and soundness. Your premises here are false, or at least not shown to be true. So the argument fails.
Skepdick
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Skepdick »

Peter Holmes wrote: Sun May 07, 2023 8:04 am I assume you understand the difference between deductive validity and soundness. Your premises here are false, or at least not shown to be true. So the argument fails.
That's not true.

If the conclusion is true, soundiess and validity are irrelevant. You keep committing the fallacy fallacy.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Argument_from_fallacy

Why do I have to keep explaining this to you? Are you dumb, or is your commitent to arriving at true conclusions just lip service?
Veritas Aequitas
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Peter Holmes wrote: Sun May 07, 2023 8:04 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sun May 07, 2023 6:31 am
I had argued, whatever is conditioned to a specific human based FSK [collective based] is by default 'objective' i.e. independent of ONE subject.
Nope. Objectivity is reliance on facts - features of reality that are or were the case, regardless of opinion. So objectivity is not independence from one person's opinion. It's independence from opinion altogether. Your equation of objectivity with intersubjective opinion is obviously incorrect.
You are blabbering again without addressing my points;

As I had countered, you are relying on a delusional 'what is fact' to claim there are no moral facts.

There are Two Senses of 'What is Fact'
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39587

PH's What is Fact is Illusory
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39577

PH's Philosophical Realism is Illusory
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39992[/list]

You have not countered my above threads against your claims.

You are also relying on a delusional sense of 'what is objectivity'
Two Senses of 'Objective'
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39326

Note;
Scientific Objectivity
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39286

I argued my 'what is moral objectivity' from a human-based moral FSK is equivalent to scientific objectivity based on a human-based science-FSK.
Are we better off without scientific objectivity?
It's independence from opinion altogether. Your equation of objectivity with intersubjective opinion is obviously incorrect.
That is why Scientific Objectivity is about.

So, according to your above can you confirm you believe scientific facts which are based on intersubjective consensus [not opinion] conditioned upon a human based scientific FSK are incorrect?

P1 What we call a fact exists and emerges from within a framework and system of knowledge.
P2 There is a morality framework and system of knowledge.
C Therefore, there are moral facts.
I assume you understand the difference between deductive validity and soundness. Your premises here are false, or at least not shown to be true. So the argument fails.
The above syllogism is valid that moral FSK facts exist.
Show me where it is deductively wrong?

Note why I introduce a general syllogism is because the soundness, i.e. objectivity can range from 0.001/100 [theistic moral FSK] to 99.99/100 [credible and reliable].

I have not justified the soundness [credibility and reliability] of my objective moral FSK in the above but have done elsewhere.
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Agent Smith
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Agent Smith »

Silentium universi.

There are two main moral theories in the west (Kantian & Bentham-Millian) and as I just found out, they're the same thing!! It's not easy to explain why, you'll havta take me word for it or if you've bought a Hitchens' Razor (quod gratis asseritur, gratis negatur), you can work it out for yourself.

Second, a certain moral formula keeps popping up, like a quack in ol' McDonald's farm, here, there, every-friggin'-where! We might need to put it under a good quality microscope.
Peter Holmes
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sun May 07, 2023 10:08 am
The above syllogism is valid that moral FSK facts exist.
Soundness refers to the truth of the premises, and therefore the deduced truth of the conclusion. Your premises are false, or at least not shown to be true, so the validity of the syllogism is irrelevant. It doesn't demonstrate the truth of the conclusion that there are moral facts.

Of course, a conclusion could be true, even if a syllogism is invalid and has false or unsupported premises. But then the argument doesn't support the truth of the conclusion, which therefore remains an unsupported assertion. That 'there are moral facts' is the issue, so just saying that there are is pointless.
Skepdick
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Skepdick »

Peter Holmes wrote: Sun May 07, 2023 3:09 pm Of course, a conclusion could be true, even if a syllogism is invalid and has false or unsupported premises. But then the argument doesn't support the truth of the conclusion, which therefore remains an unsupported assertion. That 'there are moral facts' is the issue, so just saying that there are is pointless.
True premises are also "unsupported".

Why is that a problem for conclusions but not for premises?

"That "there are facts" is also the issue, so why isn't just saying that there are not poitless? Double standards everywhere.
Veritas Aequitas
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Peter Holmes wrote: Sun May 07, 2023 3:09 pm
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sun May 07, 2023 10:08 am
The above syllogism is valid that moral FSK facts exist.
Soundness refers to the truth of the premises, and therefore the deduced truth of the conclusion. Your premises are false, or at least not shown to be true, so the validity of the syllogism is irrelevant. It doesn't demonstrate the truth of the conclusion that there are moral facts.

Of course, a conclusion could be true, even if a syllogism is invalid and has false or unsupported premises. But then the argument doesn't support the truth of the conclusion, which therefore remains an unsupported assertion. That 'there are moral facts' is the issue, so just saying that there are is pointless.
Strawman and what are you blabbering about?
I understand a valid syllogism can be GIGO, Garbage In, Garbage Out.

Note my general syllogism [edited];
P1 What we call a fact exists and emerges from within a human-based framework and system of knowledge.
P2 There is a human-based morality framework and system of knowledge.
C Therefore, there are human-based FSK moral facts.

I wrote,
1. The above syllogism is valid that moral FSK facts exist.
2. I have not justified the soundness [credibility and reliability] of my objective moral FSK in the above but have done elsewhere.
3. Note why I introduce a general syllogism is because the soundness, i.e. objectivity can range from 0.001/100 [theistic moral FSK] to 99.99/100 [credible and reliable].

You deliberately ignored my points 2 and 3 above, then create your own strawman.

X. The reason why you reject any semblance of truth in my syllogism is because you are banking on your illusory 'what is fact' based on philosophical realism, i.e. independence from human conditions.
PH's What is Fact is Illusory
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39577

Note I have raised [for my own sake] more than 250 threads in this Ethical Theory Section supporting why there are objective moral facts and that morality [human element] is objective. You have not countered the main ones.

Y. Without going into the objective truths of P1, the test is;
If you reject P1, then you are rejecting objective scientific facts emerging from a human-based scientific FSK.
Scientific Objectivity
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=39286

Can you address point X and Y above?
Peter Holmes
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Mon May 08, 2023 4:35 am Note my general syllogism [edited];
P1 What we call a fact exists and emerges from within a human-based framework and system of knowledge.
P2 There is a human-based morality framework and system of knowledge.
C Therefore, there are human-based FSK moral facts.
Okay. Can I assume this is it - that you're happy that this formulation represents your position?

I wrote,
1. The above syllogism is valid that moral FSK facts exist.
And you agree that validity has nothing to do with the truth of premises and conclusions.
2. I have not justified the soundness [credibility and reliability] of my objective moral FSK in the above but have done elsewhere.
No, you have not done so. I and others have patiently explained why your argument is fallacious. And you have stubbornly ignored these refutations. Your P2 is false, or at least not shown to be true.
3. Note why I introduce a general syllogism is because the soundness, i.e. objectivity can range from 0.001/100 [theistic moral FSK] to 99.99/100 [credible and reliable].
Your fabrication of objectivity-percentages is utterly laughable, and unworthy of serious attention.
X. The reason why you reject any semblance of truth in my syllogism is because you are banking on your illusory 'what is fact' based on philosophical realism, i.e. independence from human conditions.
To clarify: your P1 is false, because what we call a fact is a feature of reality that is or was the case, regardless of opinion. And that has nothing to do with knowledge or description. So your claim that what we call a fact emerges from and exists within a framework and system of knowledge is false. It mistakes a description for the described, which elsewhere you reject as irrational.
Note I have raised [for my own sake] more than 250 threads in this Ethical Theory Section supporting why there are objective moral facts and that morality [human element] is objective. You have not countered the main ones.
Note: I and others have falsified every one of your claims of this kind, and refuted every one of your arguments. And whereas we have taken the time to address and challenge your ideas, you have never actually conceded even one rational point made against your nonsense.
Y. Without going into the objective truths of P1, the test is;
If you reject P1, then you are rejecting objective scientific facts emerging from a human-based scientific FSK.
Nonsense. The very credibility of a discipline, such as neuroscience, depends on its objectivity - its ability to identify and describe facts, such as the existence in reality - not in a description! - of neurons and synaptic events. Those things and events don't emerge from and exist within a description. That is lunacy.
Last edited by Peter Holmes on Mon May 08, 2023 8:36 am, edited 2 times in total.
Skepdick
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Skepdick »

Peter Holmes wrote: Mon May 08, 2023 7:07 am Nonsense. The very credibility of a discipline, such as neuroscience, depends on its objectivity - it's ability to identify and describe facts, such as the existence in reality - not in a description! - of neurons and synaptic events. Those things and events don't emerge from and exist within a description. That is lunacy.
Events. Plural? Lol.

There is only one event. THE event. That which you call "Reality"; or "existence" or "the universe".
If our small minds, for some convenience, divide this universe, into parts — physics, biology, geology, astronomy, psychology, and so on — remember that nature does not know it! --Richard Feynman
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Agent Smith
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Agent Smith »

The boy ... find the boy!!

Let's go home. We have chilled cranberry juice!

If anyone else ...

Had said that ...

We would've ...

Shot him!

Chilled, chilled, cranberry juice?!

I want the sandwich!

The potato chips are mine!
Veritas Aequitas
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Peter Holmes wrote: Mon May 08, 2023 7:07 am
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Mon May 08, 2023 4:35 am Note my general syllogism [edited];
P1 What we call a fact exists and emerges from within a human-based framework and system of knowledge.
P2 There is a human-based morality framework and system of knowledge.
C Therefore, there are human-based FSK moral facts.
Okay. Can I assume this is it - that you're happy that this formulation represents your position?
Note I stated, that is my general syllogism of how there are objective FSK moral facts.
I wrote,
1. The above syllogism is valid that moral FSK facts exist.
And you agree that validity has nothing to do with the truth of premises and conclusions.
2. I have not justified the soundness [credibility and reliability] of my objective moral FSK in the above but have done elsewhere.
No, you have not done so. I and others have patiently explained why your argument is fallacious. And you have stubbornly ignored these refutations. Your P2 is false, or at least not shown to be true.
Don't give that usual "I and others" crap.
You mean others' like those clowns and philosophical gnats like ..??
Image
There are loads of stupid counters and comments.

Don't be a coward, show me the specific counter you claimed my argument is fallacious.
If anything even slightly significant I would have opened a new thread [as evident] to ensure I have covered and countered your argument thoroughly.

How can my P2 be false when there are human-based scientific FSK.
As such there can be human-based moral FSK and any other human-based FSKs.
3. Note why I introduce a general syllogism is because the soundness, i.e. objectivity can range from 0.001/100 [theistic moral FSK] to 99.99/100 [credible and reliable].
Your fabrication of objectivity-percentages is utterly laughable, and unworthy of serious attention.
You cannot understand my point re objectivity because you are stuck with the delusional objectivity grounded on your delusional philosophical realism of mind-independence.

You are countering my views based on ignorance reflected in your absence of references.
Note "Objectivity comes in degrees" from a reputable source, i.e. SEP.
Objectivity is a value.
To call a thing objective implies that it has a certain importance to us and that we approve of it.
Objectivity comes in degrees.
Claims, methods, results, and scientists can be more or less objective, and, other things being equal, the more objective, the better.

Using the term “objective” to describe something often carries a special rhetorical force with it.
The admiration of science among the general public and the authority science enjoys in public life stems to a large extent from the view that science is objective or at least more objective than other modes of inquiry.
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/scie ... jectivity/#:
Since I claimed the human-based scientific-FSK is the most credible and reliable, thus acting as a standard [say 99.99/100], then other FSKs will have lesser degrees of objectivity than the standard.
What is wrong with this? Just don't blabber, give me solid reasons why you disagree with this.
In addition, the rating of objectivity in terms of degrees can leverage pragmatic utility and progress.
X. The reason why you reject any semblance of truth in my syllogism is because you are banking on your illusory 'what is fact' based on philosophical realism, i.e. independence from human conditions.
To clarify: your P1 is false, because what we call a fact is a feature of reality that is or was the case, regardless of opinion. And that has nothing to do with knowledge or description. So your claim that what we call a fact emerges from and exists within a framework and system of knowledge is false. It mistakes a description for the described, which elsewhere you reject as irrational.
Strawman again.
I have stated many times [you acknowledged] the description is not the-described.
My PI takes into account "the description is not the-described".

I have explained a "1000" times there is a prior process of realization within a FSK of the fact before it is perceived, known and described.
This process of realization is conditioned [note determination] upon the 13 billion years of 'history' that follow and culminating in the human realization of what is fact. [You cannot deny this.] This realization process is not the perception, knowing and description of the fact.
Note I have raised [for my own sake] more than 250 threads in this Ethical Theory Section supporting why there are objective moral facts and that morality [human element] is objective. You have not countered the main ones.
Note: I and others have falsified every one of your claims of this kind, and refuted every one of your arguments. And whereas we have taken the time to address and challenge your ideas, you have never actually conceded even one rational point made against your nonsense.
Don't give me that cowardly "I and others" crap.
Why should I concede if your arguments are never convincing.
Your arguments are all grounded on the delusional philosophical realism, thus whatever conclusion you arrive thereupon are delusional.
Y. Without going into the objective truths of P1, the test is;
If you reject P1, then you are rejecting objective scientific facts emerging from a human-based scientific FSK.
Nonsense. The very credibility of a discipline, such as neuroscience, depends on its objectivity - its ability to identify and describe facts, such as the existence in reality - not in a description! - of neurons and synaptic events. Those things and events don't emerge from and exist within a description. That is lunacy.
Nonsense? you are exposing your own ignorance.
Note again, you admitted I am agree with "the description is not the-described."
Why are you strawmaning me with this point?
As such, there must be other basis I relied upon to claim 'facts are conditioned upon a specific human-based FSK' as in the human-based-scientific FSK.

PH: The very credibility of a discipline, such as neuroscience, depends on its objectivity - its ability to identify and describe facts, such as the existence in reality
You think it is easy as identify and describe facts?
For any scientific facts to be realized and emerge, there must first be a human-based scientific FSK which comprised a set of complex processes from abduction, hypothesizing, verifying, justifying, testing, etc.
This complex processes entail the participation of scientists who are human.
In addition, these human-scientists and those who have faith in the scientists are conditioned [determined] with conditions traced to the Big Bang 13 billion years ago.
As such, in this case, humans are the co-participators [co-creators] that enable the realization and emergence of the human-based scientific fact.

As such, whatever are human-based scientific neuroscience facts of neurons and synaptic events are not purely independent features of reality which you claimed are just-is, being so and that is the case. Such facts are illusory, empty, nothing, meaningless and nonsensical.

Point is you cannot claim neurons and synaptic events exist without its qualification to the human-based scientific FSK and upon humanity [traceable to the Big Bang]. You just cannot ignore these human-based elements in relation to the realization of facts.
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FlashDangerpants
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by FlashDangerpants »

P2 There are many mutually exclusive morality frameworks and systems of Belief.


Fixed.
Skepdick
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Skepdick »

FlashDangerpants wrote: Mon May 08, 2023 11:26 am P2 There are many mutually exclusive morality frameworks and systems of Belief.


Fixed.
Fixed my ass.

What objective framework/system for "mutual exclusivity" are you invoking?

By any factual account all so-called "mutually exclusive" frameworks and systems of belief coexist simultaneously so what is it that makes them "mutually exclusive"?
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