What could make morality objective?

Should you think about your duty, or about the consequences of your actions? Or should you concentrate on becoming a good person?

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Immanuel Can
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Immanuel Can »

Peter Holmes wrote: Thu Apr 23, 2020 2:52 pm The moral rightness or wrongness of an agent and its intentions - are not in the agent's gift.
"Not the human agent's gift," you mean. They are most definitely in God's doing, since He has created all things for His purposes.
You can define your invented god...

Heh. :D I can do no such thing.

Nor can you, by disbelieving, define Him away.
But that doesn't make them morally good - it just means you think and say they are.
What He thinks is right. What I think will only be right if it aligns with that.
Please address the point I made. 'if X is contrary to God's will and purpose for human beings, then X is morally wrong.' I think that's your claim.

Now, suppose X is 'love', 'kindness' or 'forgiveness'. Would you maintain your claim then? (And remember the function of a hypothetical.)
I'm sorry, but your question is just inherently contradictory. It's like, "What if all circles were square" -- hypothetical, yes, but also incoherent.

It cannot be hypothesized at all, of the God who actually exists. You would have to hypothesize thusly: "Suppose there were a Supreme Being, but it were neither kind nor forgiving...what would it want?" Framed thusly, you could ask the question: but you still couldn't answer the question thus asked.

This is because "it" would not have created anything, because creation itself is an action of kindness and goodness. (Genesis 1-3) And since the "god" thus hypothesized lacks the characteristics of the real God, it's impossible to say what such an entity would have wished, or whether it would wish anything at all. Self-revelation or instruction from such a god could not be expected.

But again, we would not even exist to "expect" it anyway.
Peter Holmes
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Immanuel Can wrote: Thu Apr 23, 2020 3:23 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: Thu Apr 23, 2020 2:52 pm The moral rightness or wrongness of an agent and its intentions - are not in the agent's gift.
"Not the human agent's gift," you mean. They are most definitely in God's doing, since He has created all things for His purposes.
You can define your invented god...

Heh. :D I can do no such thing.

Nor can you, by disbelieving, define Him away.
But that doesn't make them morally good - it just means you think and say they are.
What He thinks is right. What I think will only be right if it aligns with that.
Please address the point I made. 'if X is contrary to God's will and purpose for human beings, then X is morally wrong.' I think that's your claim.

Now, suppose X is 'love', 'kindness' or 'forgiveness'. Would you maintain your claim then? (And remember the function of a hypothetical.)
I'm sorry, but your question is just inherently contradictory. It's like, "What if all circles were square" -- hypothetical, yes, but also incoherent.

It cannot be hypothesized at all, of the God who actually exists. You would have to hypothesize thusly: "Suppose there were a Supreme Being, but it were neither kind nor forgiving...what would it want?" Framed thusly, you could ask the question: but you still couldn't answer the question thus asked.

This is because "it" would not have created anything, because creation itself is an action of kindness and goodness. (Genesis 1-3) And since the "god" thus hypothesized lacks the characteristics of the real God, it's impossible to say what such an entity would have wished, or whether it would wish anything at all. Self-revelation or instruction from such a god could not be expected.

But again, we would not even exist to "expect" it anyway.
All specious nonsense. You define your god by saying 'this god is good'. And then you define 'good' as 'what this god is'. Then you deny you can define this god, because it is what it is, how ever you define it.

My question is not incoherent. Your claim is this: If X is contrary to God's will and purpose for human beings, then X is morally wrong. And that is a universal claim for X. You are defining what is morally wrong as that which is contrary to God's will and purpose. There's no mention of the nature of God's will and purpose in that definition. And if you then limit X, your claim is false.

Keep wriggling, by all means.
Peter Holmes
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Peter Holmes wrote: Thu Apr 23, 2020 4:44 pm
Immanuel Can wrote: Thu Apr 23, 2020 3:23 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: Thu Apr 23, 2020 2:52 pm The moral rightness or wrongness of an agent and its intentions - are not in the agent's gift.
"Not the human agent's gift," you mean. They are most definitely in God's doing, since He has created all things for His purposes.
You can define your invented god...

Heh. :D I can do no such thing.

Nor can you, by disbelieving, define Him away.
But that doesn't make them morally good - it just means you think and say they are.
What He thinks is right. What I think will only be right if it aligns with that.
Please address the point I made. 'if X is contrary to God's will and purpose for human beings, then X is morally wrong.' I think that's your claim.

Now, suppose X is 'love', 'kindness' or 'forgiveness'. Would you maintain your claim then? (And remember the function of a hypothetical.)
I'm sorry, but your question is just inherently contradictory. It's like, "What if all circles were square" -- hypothetical, yes, but also incoherent.

It cannot be hypothesized at all, of the God who actually exists. You would have to hypothesize thusly: "Suppose there were a Supreme Being, but it were neither kind nor forgiving...what would it want?" Framed thusly, you could ask the question: but you still couldn't answer the question thus asked.

This is because "it" would not have created anything, because creation itself is an action of kindness and goodness. (Genesis 1-3) And since the "god" thus hypothesized lacks the characteristics of the real God, it's impossible to say what such an entity would have wished, or whether it would wish anything at all. Self-revelation or instruction from such a god could not be expected.

But again, we would not even exist to "expect" it anyway.
All specious nonsense. You define your god by saying 'this god is good'. And then you define 'good' as 'what this god is'. Then you deny you can define this god, because it is what it is, how ever you define it.

My question is not incoherent. Your claim is this: If X is contrary to God's will and purpose for human beings, then X is morally wrong. And that is a universal claim for X. You are defining what is morally wrong as that which is contrary to God's will and purpose. There's no mention of the nature of God's will and purpose in that definition. And if you then limit X, your claim is false.

If you define God's will and purpose as 'that which is good', then your claim is this: If X is contrary to that which is good, then X is morally wrong. And that is, in effect, circular. It tells us nothing.

Keep wriggling, by all means.
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Immanuel Can
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Re: What could make morality objective?

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Peter Holmes wrote: Thu Apr 23, 2020 4:44 pm You define your god by saying 'this god is good'. And then you define 'good' as 'what this god is'.
Peter Homes is the originator of this thread. The originator of this thread is Peter Homes.

Where's the inconsistency in those two statements? It seems to me that they're both true.
My question is not incoherent.
Alas, it is: for it asks for "God" to be understood by a concept which is, by definition, not-God. It then asks what this not-God "would" do, under circumstances imagined by you or me. That's too much imagining for either of us; but worse, it cuts out the concept "God" in the first place, so, as you word it can't even be a predication OF God.
Your claim is this: If X is contrary to God's will and purpose for human beings, then X is morally wrong. And that is a universal claim for X. You are defining what is morally wrong as that which is contrary to God's will and purpose.
So far, correct...
There's no mention of the nature of God's will and purpose in that definition.

Which "definition"?
Peter Holmes
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Immanuel Can wrote: Thu Apr 23, 2020 5:22 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: Thu Apr 23, 2020 4:44 pm You define your god by saying 'this god is good'. And then you define 'good' as 'what this god is'.
Peter Homes is the originator of this thread. The originator of this thread is Peter Homes.

Where's the inconsistency in those two statements? It seems to me that they're both true.
This god is good. What is good? Good is this god. (The 'is' of predication and the 'is' of identity.)
My question is not incoherent.
Alas, it is: for it asks for "God" to be understood by a concept which is, by definition, not-God. It then asks what this not-God "would" do, under circumstances imagined by you or me. That's too much imagining for either of us; but worse, it cuts out the concept "God" in the first place, so, as you word it can't even be a predication OF God.
No. You're defining that which is morally wrong as 'that which is contrary to God's will and purpose'. That's not predicating anything of God, for example that it and its will and purpose are good. It merely defines the morally wrong as contrary to God's will and purpose.
Your claim is this: If X is contrary to God's will and purpose for human beings, then X is morally wrong. And that is a universal claim for X. You are defining what is morally wrong as that which is contrary to God's will and purpose.
So far, correct...
There's no mention of the nature of God's will and purpose in that definition.

Which "definition"?
The definition of the morally wrong. That's what we're talking about. Keep wriggling.
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Immanuel Can
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Re: What could make morality objective?

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Peter Holmes wrote: Thu Apr 23, 2020 6:27 pm
Immanuel Can wrote: Thu Apr 23, 2020 5:22 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: Thu Apr 23, 2020 4:44 pm You define your god by saying 'this god is good'. And then you define 'good' as 'what this god is'.
Peter Homes is the originator of this thread. The originator of this thread is Peter Homes.

Where's the inconsistency in those two statements? It seems to me that they're both true.
This god is good. What is good? Good is this god. (The 'is' of predication and the 'is' of identity.)
No contradiction.

God is good,

and

Good is one of the things that God is.

Likewise,

Peter is the originator of this thread,

and

The originator of this thread is one of the things we can say Peter is.

No problem.
You're defining that which is morally wrong as 'that which is contrary to God's will and purpose'. That's not predicating anything of God, for example that it and its will and purpose are good. It merely defines the morally wrong as contrary to God's will and purpose.
It's quite obvious that both have to be true.

For to say, "morally wrong means that which is contrary to God's will and purpose," is surely to say, "God has purposes and a will that are good." It amounts to exactly the same thing. "Good" -- that is, genuinely good, objectively good, not merely whatever some people might think at a moment -- is what God wants and purposes.

The problem is that you are supposing the predication has some sort of possibility of standing apart from the Entity who created the very concept in the first place, and also created the world full of things it rightly describes. But God is eternal, and Christian Creation is not out of some sort of realm of Platonic forms that pre-existed it, but ex nihilo, from nothing. Thus, there is no prior referent available to us from which we can capture a true conception of good.

You don't realize your question is confused, because with reference to all the OTHER things we might call "good" or "evil," our attribution is always dependent on a concept that pre-exists them. No such thing can ever be said of God...not and have "God" remain the same one Christians and Jews postulate.

That is why one of His names is given in Torah as "I AM." He is the ultimate grounds of all being, the pre-existent One.
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Immanuel Can wrote: Thu Apr 23, 2020 8:12 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: Thu Apr 23, 2020 6:27 pm
Immanuel Can wrote: Thu Apr 23, 2020 5:22 pm
Peter Homes is the originator of this thread. The originator of this thread is Peter Homes.

Where's the inconsistency in those two statements? It seems to me that they're both true.
This god is good. What is good? Good is this god. (The 'is' of predication and the 'is' of identity.)
No contradiction.

God is good,

and

Good is one of the things that God is.

Likewise,

Peter is the originator of this thread,

and

The originator of this thread is one of the things we can say Peter is.

No problem.
Big problem.

'God is good' as a predication ascribes 'good' to God as a property or attribute. Grammatically, 'good' here is an adjective. And the response 'what is good?' is asking for an explanation of the adjective 'good' in this claim: what does it mean to say something or someone is good?

But the assertion 'Good is God' isn't a predication, ascribing God as a property or attribute to 'good' - here grammatically a noun.

So your analogy with 'Peter is the originator of this thread' and 'The originator of this thread is Peter' is false. Both of those expressions ascribe 'the originator of this thread' to Peter, so logically they make the same predication of the same subject, in grammatically different ways.
You're defining that which is morally wrong as 'that which is contrary to God's will and purpose'. That's not predicating anything of God, for example that it and its will and purpose are good. It merely defines the morally wrong as contrary to God's will and purpose.
It's quite obvious that both have to be true.

For to say, "morally wrong means that which is contrary to God's will and purpose," is surely to say, "God has purposes and a will that are good." It amounts to exactly the same thing. "Good" -- that is, genuinely good, objectively good, not merely whatever some people might think at a moment -- is what God wants and purposes.
No, this analysis is incorrect. The claim 'that which is contrary to God's will is morally wrong' doesn't describe God's will. And nor does the claim 'that which conforms to God's will is morally right'. The claim 'God has purposes and a will that are good' is quite separate, and has a separate analysis and burden of proof. So if you assume its truth in the definition of moral rightness and wrongness, your inference is unsound.

The problem is that you are supposing the predication has some sort of possibility of standing apart from the Entity who created the very concept in the first place, and also created the world full of things it rightly describes. But God is eternal, and Christian Creation is not out of some sort of realm of Platonic forms that pre-existed it, but ex nihilo, from nothing. Thus, there is no prior referent available to us from which we can capture a true conception of good.
The expression 'a true conception of good' is precisely mystical, Platonic nonsense. What we call 'good' isn't a thing of which there can be 'a true conception'.


You don't realize your question is confused, because with reference to all the OTHER things we might call "good" or "evil," our attribution is always dependent on a concept that pre-exists them. No such thing can ever be said of God...not and have "God" remain the same one Christians and Jews postulate.

That is why one of His names is given in Torah as "I AM." He is the ultimate grounds of all being, the pre-existent One.
Just spouting doctrine won't improve your argument. You can't justify the claim - 'that which is contrary to God's will is morally wrong' - by saying it's true by definition. And for that reason, 'incest is morally wrong' isn't a fact. There are no moral facts.
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Immanuel Can
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Re: What could make morality objective?

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Peter Holmes wrote: Fri Apr 24, 2020 9:44 am But the assertion 'Good is God' isn't a predication, ascribing God as a property or attribute to 'good' - here grammatically a noun.
Not "grammatically a noun." It means, "Good is one of the attributes of God," and is thus a predication. It does not mean, "Good is defined as the totality of what God is," in which case it would be a subjective completion. You've simply misunderstood my implication, by presuming the latter rather than the former. The former was the intended.

This is reasonable, because everything we can know, as human beings, about the Good can be summed up in this: it is the thing that is consonant with God's character and wishes. If you want more information about the Good than that, you're out of luck; it's not possible to get "further back" than that definition, and we human beings have no access to such a mythological, Platonic conception of the Good. It's certainly clear that our human consciences don't give us infallible access to such a conception, though they seem to have access to some aspects of the Good, if the conscience in question is operating properly.

However, conscience, like us all, is fallible in this regard, so to what shall we turn for such access?
The claim 'that which is contrary to God's will is morally wrong' doesn't describe God's will.

This is true. Rather, it describes the moral status of certain actions. It does not pretend to be a definition of anything. To describe God's will, one would need a revelation from God, since human judgment is so fallible in these things.
And nor does the claim 'that which conforms to God's will is morally right'.
Likewise.
The claim 'God has purposes and a will that are good' is quite separate, and has a separate analysis and burden of proof.
Specify that: what "burden of proof" do you suppose that claim bears? How would you go about "proving" it, if you could? And if you could not specify any burden of proof, then it cannot lack one. Rather, it would simply be something that exceeds your known tests...but you'd be unable to say, then, whether or not it was true.

But now, you also have to keep in mind that to refer to any conception of good that is not already grounded in the character of God is to misrepresent the case and to deny subjectivism is true. As a subjectivist, you have absolutely no rational access to any objective conception of good and evil anyway -- at least if you're logically consistent (I suppose you can always pretend to have one, and then try to insist that we all should want to accept your definition, but good luck with that, since you won't have a basis to justify it to anyone). So you'll have to refer to some objective concept of good, to which you're not rationally entitled, to pose the question in the first place.
The problem is that you are supposing the predication has some sort of possibility of standing apart from the Entity who created the very concept in the first place, and also created the world full of things it rightly describes. But God is eternal, and Christian Creation is not out of some sort of realm of Platonic forms that pre-existed it, but ex nihilo, from nothing. Thus, there is no prior referent available to us from which we can capture a true conception of good.
The expression 'a true conception of good' is precisely mystical, Platonic nonsense. What we call 'good' isn't a thing of which there can be 'a true conception'.

Exactly so, if we mean the Platonic conception. I do not.

But you have judged God as "immoral" several times now. It must be perfectly obvious to you that you're violating moral subjectivism when you do, unless you confine your implication to something like, "Peter doesn't like his conception of God," which you could do -- but I suspect that was not the force of the claim you wanted when you called God "immoral." I suspect you wanted to invoke a common assent by way of objective standards.

Feel free to tell me if that's not what you meant.
There are no moral facts.
If so, your claim about God was not factual. It was merely your personal taste, which I think we all had a sense of anyway. One wonders what you were trying to say...
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Re: What could make morality objective?

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Immanuel Can wrote: Fri Apr 24, 2020 3:14 pm BS - deleted
If so, your claim about God was not factual. It was merely your personal taste, which I think we all had a sense of anyway. One wonders what you were trying to say...
Once again IC is in utter denial of reason.
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Immanuel Can
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Re: What could make morality objective?

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Sculptor wrote: Fri Apr 24, 2020 3:27 pm Once again IC is in utter denial of reason.
Heh. :D

I'm ASKING for Peter's reasoning, old sport. How does a subjectivist manage rationally to warrant a universal moral claim?

That's actually just a different form of the OP, actually.
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Re: What could make morality objective?

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Immanuel Can wrote: Fri Apr 24, 2020 4:39 pm
Sculptor wrote: Fri Apr 24, 2020 3:27 pm Once again IC is in utter denial of reason.
Heh. :D

I'm ASKING for Peter's reasoning, old sport. How does a subjectivist manage rationally to warrant a universal moral claim?

That's actually just a different form of the OP, actually.
Denial, denial, denial.
Think about it
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Immanuel Can
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Re: What could make morality objective?

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Sculptor wrote: Fri Apr 24, 2020 8:50 pm Denial, denial, denial.
Think about it
:D With such a cerebral reply, how could I not?
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Re: What could make morality objective?

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Immanuel Can wrote:
----everything we can know, as human beings, about the Good can be summed up in this: it is the thing that is consonant with God's character and wishes. If you want more information about the Good than that, you're out of luck; it's not possible to get "further back" than that definition, and we human beings have no access to such a mythological, Platonic conception of the Good.
Substitute
everything we can know, as human beings, about the Good can be summed up in this: it is the thing that is consonant with nature's character and wishes. If you want more information about the Good than that, you're out of luck; it's not possible to get "further back" than that definition, and we human beings have no access to such a mythological, Platonic conception of the Good.
and I'd agree with Immanuel. I'd agree, because I have faith in cosmic order to the extent nature is the ultimate arbiter even of the good the true and the beautiful.
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Immanuel Can
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Re: What could make morality objective?

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Belinda wrote: Sat Apr 25, 2020 10:29 am ...it is the thing that is consonant with nature's character and wishes.
As read by whom? Who is the High Priest of reading Nature? Richard Attenborough? Richard Dawkins? Little Richard? Who tells us, and how, what Nature is saying to us?

And by what hermeneutical method does he proceed? Science? But science has no moral information. Your intuition? But what makes Belinda the definitive "reader" of Nature? By consensus? But consensus arguments are made that opposite things are "natural," so that's a wash...

Where is the text and grand interpreter of this book called "Nature"?
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Re: What could make morality objective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Immanuel Can wrote: Fri Apr 24, 2020 3:14 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: Fri Apr 24, 2020 9:44 am But the assertion 'Good is God' isn't a predication, ascribing God as a property or attribute to 'good' - here grammatically a noun.
Not "grammatically a noun." It means, "Good is one of the attributes of God," and is thus a predication. It does not mean, "Good is defined as the totality of what God is," in which case it would be a subjective completion. You've simply misunderstood my implication, by presuming the latter rather than the former. The former was the intended.
Intended, but not what you said. And as a subject, 'good' must be nominal - grammatically, a noun. And 'the good' is obviously nominal.

You were wrong to say that 'God is good' / Good is God' has the same equivalence as ''Peter started this thread' / 'This thread was started by Peter' - which, as I remember, was your analogy. But anyway, your claim is: 'God is good' - predicating something of God. And that claim, if it's objective, has a burden of proof.


This is reasonable, because everything we can know, as human beings, about the Good can be summed up in this: it is the thing that is consonant with God's character and wishes. If you want more information about the Good than that, you're out of luck; it's not possible to get "further back" than that definition, and we human beings have no access to such a mythological, Platonic conception of the Good. It's certainly clear that our human consciences don't give us infallible access to such a conception, though they seem to have access to some aspects of the Good, if the conscience in question is operating properly.
So we're back to the claim: If X is consonant with God's character/will/wishes/purposes, then X is good/morally right. And, pari passu with 'If X is contrary to ..., then X is bad/morally wrong'.

If we ask why this is the case, your answer is that God's character, etc, is good by definition. But a definition obviously has no truth-value, so if the claim 'God is good' is a definition, then it isn't a predication with a truth-value - it isn't a factual claim at all. And whose definition is 'God is good' anyway? This argument is completely specious.

However, conscience, like us all, is fallible in this regard, so to what shall we turn for such access?
The claim 'that which is contrary to God's will is morally wrong' doesn't describe God's will.

This is true. Rather, it describes the moral status of certain actions. It does not pretend to be a definition of anything. To describe God's will, one would need a revelation from God, since human judgment is so fallible in these things.
Sophistry. You're defining the morally wrong - or moral wrongness - as being contrary to God's will, etc, which you define as 'good'. So with your fallible human judgement you presume to define your god as good - which is a performative contradiction. 'Absent a revelation from God, we can't describe God's will, etc. But God is good, by definition.' So is that definition the product of revelation, and if so, to whom?
And nor does the claim 'that which conforms to God's will is morally right'.
Likewise.
Progress. You agree that 'being consonant with or contrary to God's will' tells us nothing about God's will.
The claim 'God has purposes and a will that are good' is quite separate, and has a separate analysis and burden of proof.
Specify that: what "burden of proof" do you suppose that claim bears? How would you go about "proving" it, if you could? And if you could not specify any burden of proof, then it cannot lack one. Rather, it would simply be something that exceeds your known tests...but you'd be unable to say, then, whether or not it was true.
The burden of proof is with the claimant. If you're saying the claim incurs no burden of proof, or that it's impossible to meet the burden - to show the claim is true or probably true - then the claim can be dismissed as unjustified speculation. It isn't my or anyone else's job to specify the required proof for your claim. And I dismiss the idea of proof anyway, because it isn't a factual claim capable of proof or disproof. And if the claim is nothing more than a jumped-up definition, it isn't a claim in the first place. Sorry. No way out.

But now, you also have to keep in mind that to refer to any conception of good that is not already grounded in the character of God is to misrepresent the case and to deny subjectivism is true. As a subjectivist, you have absolutely no rational access to any objective conception of good and evil anyway -- at least if you're logically consistent (I suppose you can always pretend to have one, and then try to insist that we all should want to accept your definition, but good luck with that, since you won't have a basis to justify it to anyone). So you'll have to refer to some objective concept of good, to which you're not rationally entitled, to pose the question in the first place.
Ah, back to deflection. You can't show that morality is objective, and appeal to a god to ground moral facts is the very antithesis of moral objectivity - so attack moral subjectivism, as though that provides evidence for moral objectivism. Of course a moral subjectivist can't claim to make objective moral judgements. Der. Only moral objectivists think that's a problem - and they can't show that morality is objective anyway.

As a rational secular humanist, I judge your buybull tribal god to be a wicked, genocidal, misogynist, bigoted, immoral thug, unworthy of worship by any half-decent person. At least, I would if it existed. And I can rationally justify each of those condemnations. Your denial that I can is your problem. And that you probably do feel obliged to reject those charges against your invented god - to do the ancient look-the-other-way tap dance - is, and has always been evidence of the intellectual and moral damage done by your disgusting religion. (Disclaimer: not one objective, factual appeal or assumption was made during the above rant.)
The problem is that you are supposing the predication has some sort of possibility of standing apart from the Entity who created the very concept in the first place, and also created the world full of things it rightly describes. But God is eternal, and Christian Creation is not out of some sort of realm of Platonic forms that pre-existed it, but ex nihilo, from nothing. Thus, there is no prior referent available to us from which we can capture a true conception of good.
The expression 'a true conception of good' is precisely mystical, Platonic nonsense. What we call 'good' isn't a thing of which there can be 'a true conception'.

Exactly so, if we mean the Platonic conception. I do not.
Trouble is, you do by default.


But you have judged God as "immoral" several times now. It must be perfectly obvious to you that you're violating moral subjectivism when you do, unless you confine your implication to something like, "Peter doesn't like his conception of God," which you could do -- but I suspect that was not the force of the claim you wanted when you called God "immoral." I suspect you wanted to invoke a common assent by way of objective standards.

Feel free to tell me if that's not what you meant.


If so, your claim about God was not factual. It was merely your personal taste, which I think we all had a sense of anyway. One wonders what you were trying to say...
Addressed and dismissed as specious, many, many times.
Last edited by Peter Holmes on Sat Apr 25, 2020 3:37 pm, edited 2 times in total.
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