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Re: Models versus Reality...

Posted: Sat Oct 17, 2015 8:39 am
by Obvious Leo
Scott Mayers wrote:I understand you. I just believe that you are not realizing that you are also accepting of the paradigm to separate science and philosophy when you interpret that physics and metaphysics are both distinct and that neither should cross each other's territory.
You are absolutely not paying attention to what I'm saying, Scott, because I have never said or implied any such thing. I have consistently maintained that physics and metaphysics are inseparable but that it is physics that must conform to metaphysics and not the other way around. If our models of physics are defining a universe which makes no sense then we must conclude that these models of physics are bullshit rather than try and redefine what making sense means. If I have only two apples in my fruit bowl then I can't take five apples out of it and I don't care how many elegant equations you might choose to invent to suggest otherwise.

Re: Models versus Reality...

Posted: Sat Oct 17, 2015 1:51 pm
by SpheresOfBalance
Obvious Leo wrote:
SpheresOfBalance wrote:Not a misrepresentation, it's not about the physics of the physical proximity of our star to earth,
Then you should go back and correct your own statement because this is not what you said. You quite specifically stated the climate is hotter at the equator than it is at the poles because the equator is closer to the sun. You may be quite sure that I am well schooled in English comprehension as well as in all aspects of physics and that I need no remedial instruction in either of these subjects from you.
There you go with your snarkiness again, I'm not here for a pissing contest, amongst testosterone gorged animals, that don't "know" themselves.

Leo, omission, does not an error make. You just took my omission as a sign that I had no clue. Why do you think that so many make that mistake, even scientists, so I played to the crowd.

Effectively, due to the physics of our atmosphere, the tilt of the earth relative to the star and it's yearly travel around the star, thus yielding a varying angle of incidence, just right for the rays to reach and be absorbed by the ground, is why it surely seems to many that the sun is closer to that band, and it is, again, effectively.

But it wasn't about all that, I could actually give a fuck about the physics. It was about the effects of solar radiation over thousands/millions of years changing how skin adapts to the ever varying quantities of UV radiation. Which proves environment plays a role in evolution, that evolution is not just some hap hazard, flip a coin, random mutation game of chance. That, that which bore us, also changes us. That we dance to the tune of the piper. That we're not at odds with it, dancing to our own tune. Is that the rub here? Far too many testosterone gorged boys, that fear giving up control to anyone or anything? I for one revel in that fact that I'm star stuff. That I'm in the universe while the universe is in me, it gives me strength, to my way of thinking. Like a 'god' one could say, but then anything created is subservient to that which created it, by whatever means of belief, either purposeful or not, or one admitting that no one could know which is in fact the case.

I should have just said, "due to increased UV radiation at the equator and thousands/millions of years of adaptation, human skin has turned dark so as to regulate." So this snarky exchange would never have happened, that's really to do about nothing constructive to the topic at hand. Darwin's model was/is not complete, and such is the case with the conclusions of many scientists, of old. Isn't it to be expected, of an ever growing/learning species such as us?

Was Darwin an atheist or a theist, sure it matters in this case!

I think it's funny, that an atheist scientist might declare there is no god, while he's tightening a screw on his automaton creation. He's here! There are ever differing levels of the macro and micro. How far does it go, beyond our current level of sight? So how could any current answer be necessarily definitive, as if certainly the case?

Re: Models versus Reality...

Posted: Sat Oct 17, 2015 2:09 pm
by SpheresOfBalance
Obvious Leo wrote:As Hobbes so succinctly pointed out, an effect should not be conflated with its cause. This is a lesson which physicists would also do well to learn when they so glibly speak of "forces", "fields", "waves" and "particles".
It's all just language, so as to speak, and we are "ALL" bound by it. In this case, in fact "effects" and "causes" are exactly the same as "forces", "fields", "waves" and "particles," as they are all human constructs, and as soon as we go down that path of argument, we defeat our own argument in it's formulation. Of course it's OK to 'try' and refine ones language such that is considers everything in the formulation, yet no one knows everything, so where does that leave "everyone?" Some of you have argued against semantics, yet that is what all this argument is, and all it can ever be, for now. We are still young, I just hope humankind shall live to graduate kindergarten. ;)

What you meant to say, in my way of thinking, is that you and Hobbes 'seem' to agree, at least on this particular point. Which has no necessary bearing on the truth of the matter, as the topic at hand is surrounded by theories.

Re: Models versus Reality...

Posted: Sat Oct 17, 2015 10:10 pm
by cladking
Obvious Leo wrote:
Scott Mayers wrote:I understand you. I just believe that you are not realizing that you are also accepting of the paradigm to separate science and philosophy when you interpret that physics and metaphysics are both distinct and that neither should cross each other's territory.
You are absolutely not paying attention to what I'm saying, Scott, because I have never said or implied any such thing. I have consistently maintained that physics and metaphysics are inseparable but that it is physics that must conform to metaphysics and not the other way around. If our models of physics are defining a universe which makes no sense then we must conclude that these models of physics are bullshit rather than try and redefine what making sense means. If I have only two apples in my fruit bowl then I can't take five apples out of it and I don't care how many elegant equations you might choose to invent to suggest otherwise.
I agree completely that but it's not an absolute that physics must agree with metaphysics. What I mean is that there's nothing to prevent new knowledge from causing us to go back and change the metaphysical components and start all over. Of course we haven't done that but it's a possibility.

Yes. Physics must agree with metaphysics or it has no meaning and this is where so many are going astray.

Re: Models versus Reality...

Posted: Sat Oct 17, 2015 11:03 pm
by Obvious Leo
Ideas do not pop into existence like virtual particles from the luminiferous aether and miraculously form themselves into coherent narratives for presentation to the mind of man in the form of truths. Ideas are a construct of language and thus beholden to the semantic, cultural and intellectual zeitgeist of the times which give birth to them. They are mortal and they deserve an honourable burial when their utility has ventured beyond their expiry date. It was Max Planck who famously said that ideas in physics never die a natural death. They linger on and on and on until such time as a better idea comes along to stab them in the heart in an intellectual coup d'etat. Such an event cannot possibly occur in physics any more but it was what drove it inexorably forward until the constraints of 20th century academia halted such a possibility in its tracks. The modern methodology of model-building is one which insists on salvaging the theory at all costs and it is one which will pluck mathematical constants out of thin air in order to do so, an act of brute mathematical force which would surely have Ptolemy beaming with pride. In its hubris physics has destroyed its own credibility by epicycling its way into a conceptual netherworld and only metaphysics can guide it back into the light.
SpheresOfBalance wrote: I could actually give a fuck about the physics.
"Whereof one cannot speak, thereof one must be silent".....Ludwig Wittgenstein.

Re: Models versus Reality...

Posted: Sat Oct 17, 2015 11:59 pm
by Hobbes' Choice
SpheresOfBalance wrote:
Obvious Leo wrote:As Hobbes so succinctly pointed out, an effect should not be conflated with its cause. This is a lesson which physicists would also do well to learn when they so glibly speak of "forces", "fields", "waves" and "particles".
It's all just language, so as to speak, and we are "ALL" bound by it. In this case, in fact "effects" and "causes" are exactly the same as "forces", "fields", "waves" and "particles," as they are all human constructs, and as soon as we go down that path of argument, we defeat our own argument in it's formulation. Of course it's OK to 'try' and refine ones language such that is considers everything in the formulation, yet no one knows everything, so where does that leave "everyone?" Some of you have argued against semantics, yet that is what all this argument is, and all it can ever be, for now. We are still young, I just hope humankind shall live to graduate kindergarten. ;)

What you meant to say, in my way of thinking, is that you and Hobbes 'seem' to agree, at least on this particular point. Which has no necessary bearing on the truth of the matter, as the topic at hand is surrounded by theories.
It's a no brainer even you can understand, and painfully obvious. It's truth screams at us with utter clarity everyday. You can't wake up unless you are asleep. You can't take a shit unless you have had some food at some point in the past.
This is not semantic. It's boringly obvious.
Events have sequence. Stuff changes. You can call that time if you want. And you can separate antecedent from present events and nominate them as causes and effects. But what you can't do is pretend that they are the same thing.

Re: Models versus Reality...

Posted: Sun Oct 18, 2015 1:09 am
by Obvious Leo
Most of the confusion through this section of the thread seems to be due to a failure to understand the principle of emergence and the notion of emergent causal domains. These principles are completely ignored in Newtonian physics which is entirely reductionist in its methodology and thus all causation is assumed to be only from the bottom up. This is not the way the real world works because in the real world causation operates both top-down and bottom up, which is emphatically NOT the same thing as reverse causation. Water has properties which its constituent atoms don't have and it is the BEHAVIOUR of these atoms in a particular environment which confer these properties on the molecule. However it is these emergent properties which determine the behaviour of the water molecule at a higher level of informational complexity and not the behaviour of the constituent atoms themselves. However this emergent behaviour of the molecule is also a causal domain which can also operate top-down and affect the behaviour of the constituent atoms. We can thus see that water is in fact a dynamic process being maintained in a stable state by a causal feedback mechanism, but that effects are nevertheless continuing to be preceded by causes in an orderly and generative fashion. It is via such networked causal feedback mechanisms that all of physical reality operates and it is the central plank of a non-Newtonian model for reality called AUTOPOIESIS. (from the Greek "self-creating").

Re: Models versus Reality...

Posted: Sun Oct 18, 2015 4:57 am
by Scott Mayers
Hi attofishpi,

I agree with everything you said. I think I just have to find better words to explain what I mean.

First off when we discuss here or elsewhere of the concept of 'determinism', I see reality as a whole determined with respect to some god's-eye perspective, to which I use the word, 'totality' rather than "universe" since it is more inclusive to all possibilities. I also agree with you that time is at least a construct, whether it is us or our contingent universe causing it as an illusion.

Accepting all possibilities, each reality (elemental or complex) is like pieces of a potential puzzle and any 'universe' is simply some combination of these pieces in every possible combination. However, only some of these form what we might consider as consistent pictures or "pictures of pictures" (respecting time, illusion or not). Then our universe is simply one in which the only way we could possibly be entities requires a universe which is consistent in some way.

One 'consistency' is to perceive time as ordered in one unique way. Each 'frame' (= all that is in some 'frozen moment') in our universe may have either one unique path forward and backwards, or multiple ones. Forwards, this is our perception of "free choice". But looking backwards, since it is also a consistency of us to have a 'memory' (whether in just our heads or in record as history), it always appears that the past is 'fixed' as one unique path.

In reality with respect to each of us in this particular universe, though, both the forward and backwards directions of 'time' is unique, meaning it is 'determined'. If we toss a coin, we might recognize the odds of it being heads is 1/2 but really all that we know is that whatever occurs is what it is. So if we get a head after the toss, with respect to determinism and to nature itself, the real odds of the head here is 100%, not 1/2.

All I mean here is that although to us, even while it 'appears' as though the future is one of "free choice" or that it has options, we can only infer one unique outcome in practice and this is determined upon experiencing it.

With this said, all reality with respect to us as individuals, we have one precise 'story' which could be represented metaphorically as one long film to which each moment is a frame.

And so when I used the explanation of being able to play the film forwards or backwards, while the forward direction is determined, the backwards direction is also determined. And so the only difference is that for the laws which define us moving forward, for the backward direction, it is the same except that you have to reverse the laws in direction. We cannot actually perceive a backward moving world as we are moving forward. Yet in a backward world, if possible, it would have a perfectly sensible means except that the laws are all precisely reversed. We would, for instance, know the past in a backward world and as we move in that direction, we would think it normal to 'forget' as we progress from old to young. Walking 'backwards' would seem like the norm, etc.

So my point is that the forward direction is only equal but opposite in the directions of each and every frame. It doesn't really change anything except if we begin to think of whether free options exist (indeterminacy or 'free choice'). In this case, what I mean is that for any 'frame', it can be spliced out and placed in a potentially infinite number of worlds (puzzle pictures) that have both different forward AND backward frames that create a completely consistent 'story' just like ours. It is like if we were to literally borrow a frame from some movie, like Star Wars, to use as one frame in a completely different movie. In this way, with respect to that particular frame, both the past and future frames in this new movie can be different all together.

Does this help clarify what I mean or do I need illustrations to help?

Re: Models versus Reality...

Posted: Sun Oct 18, 2015 5:05 am
by Scott Mayers
Obvious Leo wrote:
Scott Mayers wrote:I understand you. I just believe that you are not realizing that you are also accepting of the paradigm to separate science and philosophy when you interpret that physics and metaphysics are both distinct and that neither should cross each other's territory.
You are absolutely not paying attention to what I'm saying, Scott, because I have never said or implied any such thing. I have consistently maintained that physics and metaphysics are inseparable but that it is physics that must conform to metaphysics and not the other way around. If our models of physics are defining a universe which makes no sense then we must conclude that these models of physics are bullshit rather than try and redefine what making sense means. If I have only two apples in my fruit bowl then I can't take five apples out of it and I don't care how many elegant equations you might choose to invent to suggest otherwise.
I can agree with this. I said "implied" and NOT that you actually 'said' this as you clearly do not. I was just pointing to the appearance of the inconsistency. I agree that metaphysics, including other areas of philosophy, encapsulates necessary preconditions to thinking about physics. The exact sciences, which includes physics, are made up of people who 'practice' and so are like the laborers of the top-down approach to discovery, where philosophy is the bottom-up one. Both are needed to help us understand reality but it is the philosophy that has the administrative functioning to create the rules to which even science must abide by. You can't have even a 'method' to the practice of science without the philosophers who designed it and can inspect and refine it. It is the way that some believe that it is 'fixed' and cannot be improved upon by the practitioners who can't recognize this.

Re: Models versus Reality...

Posted: Sun Oct 18, 2015 5:59 am
by Obvious Leo
Scott. I'm not even suggesting that the model-building methodology of physics is even in any way the "wrong"method because I'm buggered if I could think of a better way of doing it. All I'm saying is that it is contingent on the metaphysical viability of the models being being built on and if these models are suggesting that effects can precede their causes and that events can occur with no cause whatsoever then such models are bollocks and the a priori premises on which they are founded must be false. Unfortunately the methodology itself is inherently tautologous which means that even if the model being built on is bullshit this need not affect its epistemic utility and thus cannot provide a pointer to a better model. The Ptolemaic cosmology is still perfectly adequate for the prediction of solar and lunar eclipses, for example, even though its a priori assumption has been superseded.

Re: Models versus Reality...

Posted: Sun Oct 18, 2015 7:39 am
by Scott Mayers
Obvious Leo wrote:Scott. I'm not even suggesting that the model-building methodology of physics is even in any way the "wrong"method because I'm buggered if I could think of a better way of doing it. All I'm saying is that it is contingent on the metaphysical viability of the models being being built on and if these models are suggesting that effects can precede their causes and that events can occur with no cause whatsoever then such models are bollocks and the a priori premises on which they are founded must be false. Unfortunately the methodology itself is inherently tautologous which means that even if the model being built on is bullshit this need not affect its epistemic utility and thus cannot provide a pointer to a better model. The Ptolemaic cosmology is still perfectly adequate for the prediction of solar and lunar eclipses, for example, even though its a priori assumption has been superseded.
On a strictly philosophical view through metaphysics, the initial question is whether we can assume an uncaused cause or an infinite one. Even in your own interpretation, you consider nature as self-evolving in this same meaning without necessarily recognizing this as meaning the same.

I suggested considering first the origins of the symbols for nothing, a something, and infinity because they hint at what our ancestors were likely trying to associate these metaphysical ideas in a pictatorial representation of them.

For instance, a "one" is historically most often symbolized as '1', or a simple straight segment without the particular little line on the top of the symbol dipping downwards towards the left. Because we are restricted to our present fonts, maybe using the bar, '|' might be more akin to the original symbol. Before writing or even carving in stone, the likely ease to count using marks on sticks, a count of "one" would likely be made by simply cutting a straight line across it. Since a zero was unnecessary to be represented, if even some symbol were made to specify some count of something, like a "sheep" symbol where one is accounting how many sheep they do not have, they might indicate that no sheep are present by leaving the place where one would normally place some amount of cuts or '|', empty.

The zero as a symbol derived in some way to contrast against the idea of the '|'. For our ancients, they might have though of the '|' akin to a wall or fence which is incomplete on its own to hold some flock of sheep or contain anything where they could easily escape by going around the ends of it. In this sense, a segment in insufficient to remind one of completeness. The circle would seem to convey the idea of this closure such that it is like an fence that bounds anything contained in it. Our present '0' is somewhat elongated and so to convey a circle, it might be best to use the capital letter, 'O'. Note how the zero is like an infinite line as it cycles upon itself. So our ancients likely though of this as somehow primitive to nature as well to mean something closed, complete, and yet, nothing as well.

If we think of an uncaused cause, the symbol, 'O', to some would represent this as well as to the idea of an origin. The symbol '|' as a segment represents the idea of non-closure if we consider the symbol as merely short for an 'ideal' line going on in both directions infinitely akin to a Euclidean straight line. That is, it is a two-way ray. Notice how the '1' appears as a derivative ray where the bottom of the symbol is the point of origin to the ray and the top is the infinite arrow, akin to our idea of the arrow of time.

I'm only pointing to the symbols here as the models to which our ancients might have been thinking of what they refer to as an idea. I also pointed out before that the idea of infinity as a symbol may have been 'OO' originally for those who may have been thinking of Euclidean points as that which has no space. And since between any two points is an infinity even though they also define a fixed real shortest distance, like a segment, this may have been used because '|' was already used and would be more complex to think of some symbol that represents the continuity of such segments as going infinitely. It is likely too that some have used a sign for infinity by using the segment with arrows on both ends. I'm sure there is a font somewhere for this but can't find it at present.

I used this etymological assumption because I believe it is helpful to hint at how we can interpret the metaphysical and epistemic roots of a something and nothing, finity and infinity, and other related issues that both involve the way we evolved thinking about numbers, logic, and physics with respect to reality. I believe that while some think an origin as fixed, others think of it as unfixed or infinite. The 'fixed' view can also be interpreted as being 'unfixed' one as well in the way a zero is represented and also represents a self-caused cause. It is why I prefer this as a source for arguing from.

Another reason is that if we were to assume a something first, it would be awkward to represent a zero that follows it naturally without placing it at the end akin to infinity. When the zero was realized as meaningful, if we represent our natural numbers as {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, ...infinity}, it is simplest to originate a new more complete representation to zero as being from the left in this 'model'. Thus the "whole" numbers had been defined as the zero AND the natural numbers as {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, ...infinity}. Then using the symbol of using two '0's, we might define this same set of whole numbers symbolically as {O, |, ...., OO}.

Notice how in this last 'model' of the set illustrates that even if we consider zero as infinite in meaning itself, the set with respect to reality is also infinite OR that the origin begins at zero and proceeds to infinity like our 'arrow of time' description.

My point thus far is that the ideas of a nothing, a something, and infinity, all contribute to various differences of opinions regarding origins and what we need to recognize as the underlying problems of different interpretations to begin on. I believe that for any interpretation, what we have to recognize is that at least both a nothing and a something (as a 'unit') are essential. You might also interpret this too as a nothing and everything (as infinity) as existing as well. A last way, that I think we can interpret is for a something (as a unit) and infinity. Either way, we need at least two of these necessarily to make sense of reality.

It is hard to initially determine if one of these ideas 'existed' first or prior (without time). But I think any approach leads to the same underlying truth for which we seek here. Also, note that we NEED all three ideas as perspectives and is likely where some of our ancients derived their various original ideas that have evolved into religion, such as "The Trinity" of their gods.

All these are also still 'models' and yet also the generalized inference of the special cases of our local experiences considering everything. So while it may be difficult to think of models as being real, we still resort to them even in philosophy regardless. But they are 'real' in that they are simply a reminder of the ideas we infer directly through observing reality regardless.

Re: Models versus Reality...

Posted: Sun Oct 18, 2015 8:57 am
by Obvious Leo
I think your understanding of the history of zero and infinity in mathematical philosophy is illusory, Scott, because there is none. Until very recent times neither of these concepts has ever been regarded as anything more than an unrealisable mathematical abstraction with no analogue in physical reality. The pre-Socratics denied them point blank and thought that the question "Why is there something rather than nothing?" was just a fucking dumb question. So do I. Nothing does not exist because something does. That's it. End of story. Game over.

Re: Models versus Reality...

Posted: Sun Oct 18, 2015 9:14 am
by Scott Mayers
Obvious Leo wrote:I think your understanding of the history of zero and infinity in mathematical philosophy is illusory, Scott, because there is none. Until very recent times neither of these concepts has ever been regarded as anything more than an unrealisable mathematical abstraction with no analogue in physical reality. The pre-Socratics denied them point blank and thought that the question "Why is there something rather than nothing?" was just a fucking dumb question. So do I. Nothing does not exist because something does. That's it. End of story. Game over.
You obviously miss what you cannot find in history anyways depending on what is or is not preserved OR to which selections of material you've read regarding the history of zero. "Zeno", for instance, was either a name derived of this concept or derived from it but is lost to us. I completely disagree with you that this has NOT been thought of. We already know that the symbols had been reintroduced to us by the Arabs from a rediscovery of the lost materials that reignited the era we call, the "Enlightenment". Yet, while much of this material was rediscovered, there is still likely a lot more that is and will be permanently lost to our history.

My point was to show that you cannot make any complete sense of the logic nor the underlying physics (or metaphysics) without using the idea of zero and/or infinity to complete the whole picture. See "The Axiom of Identity *Challenged*" [I'll edit to link this later. EDITED now.] thread to which the OP actually argues to attempt to prove exactly just what you think. He tries there to show that in order to assume any comparison to two (or more) things reduces to comparing copies of the same idea which is some form of 'cheat' as he tries to demonstrate because the initial "one" cannot be compared to itself without making some kind of copy that makes it two things of comparison to deal with. AND notice how once he figures that a sincere unique truth MUST exist, akin to assuming something as necessary, he reduces his reasoning to infer a god.

The same would be the case if we assumed only a zero (WITH time as a component as you do) by itself and why I understand you from your perspective is relatively fair in a time-causal relationship. So I am asserting that both a something and a nothing are both one and the same in a contradictory way that leads us to infer necessarily both, even apriori to 'time' itself.

Re: Models versus Reality...

Posted: Sun Oct 18, 2015 10:09 am
by Obvious Leo
You're completely wrong, Scott. Zero was never used in Greek mathematics and was never a part of Greek mathematical thought. Neither was infinity. The Romans never had anything like it either. Zero was first introduced into European thought some time after the crusades along with all the other mathematical tools of the Persians, most of which they inherited from the Hindus. Unfortunately the cloistered houses of European learning didn't bother to steal the mathematical philosophy which was intended to accompany the use of these tools and to this day the mathematical philosophies of the west still remain a millennium out of date. Presumably they assumed they needed no instruction in philosophy from the godless heathen and thus they still haven't got a clue what mathematics can and cannot tell us about physical reality. They can't tell the difference between the map and the territory.

Re: Models versus Reality...

Posted: Sun Oct 18, 2015 10:38 am
by Scott Mayers
Obvious Leo wrote:You're completely wrong, Scott. Zero was never used in Greek mathematics and was never a part of Greek mathematical thought. Neither was infinity. The Romans never had anything like it either. Zero was first introduced into European thought some time after the crusades along with all the other mathematical tools of the Persians, most of which they inherited from the Hindus. Unfortunately the cloistered houses of European learning didn't bother to steal the mathematical philosophy which was intended to accompany the use of these tools and to this day the mathematical philosophies of the west still remain a millennium out of date. Presumably they assumed they needed no instruction in philosophy from the godless heathen and thus they still haven't got a clue what mathematics can and cannot tell us about physical reality. They can't tell the difference between the map and the territory.
I didn't SAY that the Greeks nor Romans DID use the zero. But it was though of and likely disposed of even where they DID exist for just the exact same skepticism you have here and it is only the general culture of such lack of willingness to include zero in their languages to which is why you don't see it for such a long time until much later. The Arabs likely HAD the unaccepted original sources as the Greeks and Romans and later Christian Church would have hidden these to thought from history. It was NOT acceptable to even use the zero in these cultures simply because the majority itself could not fathom that a nothingness had any meaning nor use.

I've already clarified this before when I even mentioned the limitations of Euclid to NOT use any number system because there was no mathematical way to present his theorems in language that was even allowed back then. So he opted to use literal diagrams and the process of drawing pictures to represent numbers evolved. But the concept of a nothing was originated on and off throughout human history. An inductive reference of 'proof' of this is even found in Egyptian myth. Their Gods, Nun and Nut were gods of water and sky, to which referred to them as 'fluids' of mystery. These are our roots of None and Nothing.