Re: Is morality objective or subjective?
Posted: Sat Jan 22, 2022 3:27 pm
I thought I'd posted a reply to this, but I can't find it. So sorry if this is repetition.Terrapin Station wrote: ↑Sat Jan 22, 2022 2:19 pmif there are meanings, if there is knowledge, etc. then those things exist, right? That's the way that "there is x" works. Whatever is x there, if there is some of it, it exists.Peter Holmes wrote: ↑Fri Jan 21, 2022 8:22 pmI'm obviously not saying that at all. Think about it. What evidence is there for the existence of an abstract thing that is a meaning? For example, what and where is a meaning? Saying it's a mental phenomenon explains precisely nothing.Terrapin Station wrote: ↑Fri Jan 21, 2022 6:58 pm
if you wind up arguing that words, symbols, etc. do not have meanings, that there is no knowledge, etc., then you should realize you've royally f---ed up somewhere.
You're not arguing that "there is meaning but it doesn't exist" are you, because that would suggest that you don't even understand how to use language, and we'd have to wonder what the hell you could possibly be saying.
As a physicalist, I believe that only physical things exist, and that to say non-physical things exist is to equivocate.
If you think things such as truth, knowledge, meaning, intention, identity, justice, and so on - the supposed things that philosophers talk about - are physical things, what empirical evidence do you have for their existence?
And if you think such supposed things are 'mental entities', but that mental entities are physical things, I ask the same question. (Obviously, brains and electrochemical processes are physical things for which we have empirical evidence.)
In other words, for a physicalist, the idea of a mental entity or phenomenon has absolutely no explanatory value. Occam's razor applied.
(Would saying 'X is a physical phenomenon' have any discriminatory value?)