Alexiev wrote: ↑Fri Oct 10, 2025 12:46 pm
Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Fri Oct 10, 2025 12:05 am
Alexiev wrote: ↑Wed Oct 08, 2025 10:03 am
Why can't you evaluate a religion on the basis of your ethical criteria?
Because secularism does not have any ethical criteria. Its worldview doesn't have any explanation for how any can exist.
How else are you supposed to evaluate it?
You can't, obviously.
So all a secularist can do is pretend his preferences are actual, objective moral criteria, and use
them, the imaginary criteria...even though his own worldview does not permit any, and nobody has any reason to accept his.
But he shouldn't be surprised if he is ignored. After all, his own worldview tells him no moral criteria are anything but somebody's prejudices.
The notion that subjective opinions are nothing but prejudices is ridiculous.
No, it's what is called a "synonym." I can see you're irritated, but I think that's because you sense we're on the verge of a truthful realization here. But let me explain.
We can play with nomenclature; we can call it "subjective opinion," or "taste," or "preference," or "gut feeling," or "momentary disposition," but what "prejudice" captures much better is the element of taking received moral precepts that are (according to subjectivism) merely subjective, and treating them as if they had some sort of objective force. It's passing a "judgment" before one has any grounds to justify that judgment. And if that doesn't amount to "prejudice," then I'd say probably nothing can.
I decide what movies to see by reading critiques; I decide what restaurants to patronize by reading reviews; I vote for candidates based (in part) on reading editorials and op.eds. What's wrong with that?
Morality is not like taste in movies -- mine, yours, or the critics'. If it is not grounded in some reality, then it has no authority, no power, no obligatory force...it can, and should be, simply disregarded.
Nietzsche got that.
A "prejudice" is a preconceived opinion not based on evidence or reason.
Yes. So what "evidence" or "reason" can you produce for even one moral precept? Just one. Any one. You can pick it. But show why anybody at all is obligated to agree with it.
Are you suggesting that a literary critic who prefers Jane Austen to Georgette Heyer is merely "prejudiced"?
No. I'm suggesting he's dealing with mere matters of taste, not matters of morality at all. Taste can neither be right nor wrong...but morality always requires both.
Torquemada thought Christianity not only justified but demanded the torture and burning of heretics.
No, I don't think he did. I think he just wanted to do it, and found it convenient to invent a pseudo-religious rationale to do it. But you won't find he had any basis in Scripture. He was just making stuff up.
Of course, you might be referring to Torquemada in the hopes of invoking a case we'll all agree that he did something wrong. But if his opinion on the subject was subjective, and yours is subjective, then is torturing "heretics" actually right or wrong? What's your "reason" and "evidence" that you're right, and he wasn't?
The problem with it was that it ignored basic moral principles of kindness and charity.
What's the "reason" and "evidence" you use to inform yourself that "kindness" and "charity" are good, and Torquemada was bad?
You see, even subjectivists can't help trying to smuggle back into the discussion value judgments for which they can explain no warrant. Alexiev does not like torture. Torquemada did. What is the arbitrating authority that ought to compel us to agree with Alexiev and not with Torquemada?
The certainty with which Torquemada approached his faith -- feeling his beliefs were "objective -- justified his actions.
You're guessing. Neither you nor I knows his motive. If his faith was really focused on objective realities, he surely should have compared his own actions to Scripture and discovered he was not "loving his enemies" or "praying for them" by torturing them.
Did he know about the Biblical view? Probably. We might guess he did. Maybe he didn't. But he certainly didn't care, if he knew; and he wasn't looking to it for any instruction about what he was doing. His actions prove that.
But given that Atheists have killed far, far more people than all the religious in the world combine, throughout the entirety of human history, what's your assurance that they are in a more "moral" position?
Doubt -- I'd suggest --is the beginning of wisdom.
I agree. Doubt is very good, so long as it does not merely decay into brainless cynicism, but rather provokes proper questioning.
"And now I give you these three, hope, faith, and love. But the greatest of these is love." Both secular and Christian moral philosophers can (subjectively) agree.
But again, why do you believe they
should agree? And if they don't, what makes one of them bad?