Notice how you keep insisting on contextualising/framing/conditioning the scenario around "after seeing the $100 note".Flannel Jesus wrote: ↑Mon Jul 18, 2022 9:26 am The idea that it's still 50/50 after seeing the $100 - empirically, it can be shown to hover around 66.66...%
Notice how you also keep insisting on contextualising/framing/conditioning the scenario around "after performing the experiment infinitely many times".
Only you aren't being as explicit about your 2nd condition as you are with your 1st.
Basically, you aren't being very analytical if you are blindly using a theorem you can't derrive from first principles.Flannel Jesus wrote: ↑Mon Jul 18, 2022 9:26 am Analytically, it can be shown to be 2/3, through various means but my preferred means is Bayes theorem.
You are just doing what Bayes told you to do, without any understanding of why you are doing it; or the conditions under which the theorem holds.
Good computer *pats on head* , here's a snack!