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Re: All Moral State-of-affairs are Facts

Posted: Sat Sep 12, 2020 11:58 am
by Skepdick
Harbal wrote: Fri Sep 11, 2020 6:53 pm You could prove that most people think it is wrong by doing a survey, but that isn't really proving that it is wrong.
I have no idea what you mean by "prove", but you know exactly what you mean by it.

So don't ask me that. Ask yourself that.

What proof would you accept for the wrongness of murder?
Harbal wrote: Fri Sep 11, 2020 6:53 pm So how would you say we could measure the wrongness of murder.
I gave you a way of measuring it using bits (of information). Yes/no answers are measurements.

Do you not like that measurement instrument?

Do you have a different conception of "measurement" also?
Harbal wrote: Fri Sep 11, 2020 6:53 pm We could measure the wavelength of the light coming from the sky to ascertain the fact, the matter of what an individual wants to call the light of that particular wavelength is, I would say, a matter of choice.
Some measurement apparatus might measure the wavelength as X
Another measurement apparatus might measure the wavelength as Y.

Exactly like some people measure "Is murder wrong?" with Yes.
And other people measure "Is murder wrong?" with No.

How do you calibrate your measurement instruments to give the same answer?

Re: All Moral State-of-affairs are Facts

Posted: Sat Sep 12, 2020 12:10 pm
by Harbal
Skepdick wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 11:58 am
Some measurement apparatus might measure the wavelength as X
Another measurement apparatus might measure the wavelength as Y.

Exactly like some people measure "Is murder wrong?" with Yes.
And other people measure "Is murder wrong?" with No.

How do you calibrate your measurement instruments to give the same answer?
What on earth are you talking about?

Re: All Moral State-of-affairs are Facts

Posted: Sat Sep 12, 2020 12:15 pm
by Skepdick
Harbal wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 12:10 pm What on earth are you talking about?
I am talking about the process of calibration.

The process of making sure that two different instruments, built for the same purpose, produce the same readings.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Calibration

If we measure the wavelength of the sky and your instrument produces a different reading to mine, whose instrument is miscalibrated?

You can ask the exact same question for moral compasses.

Re: All Moral State-of-affairs are Facts

Posted: Sat Sep 12, 2020 12:23 pm
by Harbal
Skepdick wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 12:15 pm
Harbal wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 12:10 pm What on earth are you talking about?
I am talking about the calibration.

The process of making sure that two different instruments, built for the same purpose, produce the same readings.
Why?

As far as this thread is concerned, neither of us are interested in measuring instruments. What is it that you are trying to establish? Is it the moral status of homicide, or what?

Re: All Moral State-of-affairs are Facts

Posted: Sat Sep 12, 2020 12:33 pm
by Skepdick
Harbal wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 12:23 pm Why?

As far as this thread is concerned, neither of us are interested in measuring instruments.
Shiiit. You DO have strange ways of showing disinterest!!!
Harbal wrote: Fri Sep 11, 2020 6:53 pm So how would you say we could measure the wrongness of murder.
Harbal wrote: Fri Sep 11, 2020 6:53 pm We could measure the wavelength of the light coming from the sky to ascertain the fact.
You proposed "measurement" as way of resolving disagreements about the color of the sky.
So I am asking you how to resolve disagreements in measurements.
Harbal wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 12:23 pm What is it that you are trying to establish? Is it the moral status of homicide, or what?
Right now, I am trying to establish what you mean by "measurement" and "proof".

Re: All Moral State-of-affairs are Facts

Posted: Sat Sep 12, 2020 12:35 pm
by Harbal
Skepdick wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 12:33 pm Right now, I am trying to establish what you mean by "measurement" and "proof".
I was probably being rhetorical.

Re: All Moral State-of-affairs are Facts

Posted: Sat Sep 12, 2020 12:37 pm
by Skepdick
Harbal wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 12:35 pm I was probably being rhetorical.
Probably, not certainly?

You can't take an exact measurement on that?

Just ask yourself the question "Was I being rhetorical?" It's a yes/no answer.

Re: All Moral State-of-affairs are Facts

Posted: Sat Sep 12, 2020 12:44 pm
by Harbal
Skepdick wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 12:37 pm
Just ask yourself the question "Was I being rhetorical?" It's a yes/no answer.
I found our conversation yesterday very tedious, so I have no intention of going back over it in order to analyse bits of it. If you are thinking of starting again today, would you try to be a bit less irritating, please.

Re: All Moral State-of-affairs are Facts

Posted: Sat Sep 12, 2020 1:02 pm
by Atla
Skepdick wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 11:50 am
Atla wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 11:20 am Likewise, Western thinkers may see it as effing insane (at least I do) that we don't devide things into subjective and objective. Using this division is a lot more advantageous overall.
So lets gets started right away!

Would you say "advantageousness" is subjective or objective?
I was talking about Western and non-Western thinkers, I'm not sure we can squeeze you into either of those categories.

Re: All Moral State-of-affairs are Facts

Posted: Sat Sep 12, 2020 1:04 pm
by Skepdick
Atla wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 1:02 pm I was talking about Western and non-Western thinkers, I'm not sure we can squeeze you into either of those categories.
I think you are putting the horse before the cart here, let us first think about this.

Is the proper adjective "Western" subjective or objective?

Re: All Moral State-of-affairs are Facts

Posted: Sun Sep 13, 2020 5:45 am
by Veritas Aequitas
Harbal wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 11:00 am I still don't understand why you call them moral facts. Wouldn't "facts relating to morality" or "facts about morality" be more accurate, and less misleading.
The term "moral facts" is used in the same sense of 'scientific facts' 'legal facts' 'historical facts' "economic fact" and "whatever facts".
Thus the above are specific facts are related/confined to their specific framework and system of knowledge.
So what is wrong with using the term 'moral facts' which are specific to the moral framework and system.

What the moral-facts-deniers claim is there are no facts and moral statements cannot be facts as far as morality [& ethics] is concern.
They claim whatever is of morality only expresses opinions, beliefs, are emotional, of feelings, and of the others as in the list above.
It's almost as if you want to be misunderstood in order to get people to challenge you, and you in return get to shout "moral fact deniers" at them. It all seems rather pointless. :(
Those who deny there are moral facts know what moral-facts-denier mean.
It was not me who started this contention, but note these threads raised by Peter Holmes;

There are no moral facts by Peter Holmes
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=29779

Is morality objective or subjective? by Peter Holmes
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=24531

What could make morality objective? by Peter Holmes
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=24601

Re: All Moral State-of-affairs are Facts

Posted: Sun Sep 13, 2020 6:00 am
by Veritas Aequitas
Atla wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 11:20 am Might have something to do with the concept of objectivity being a rather Western one. Facts are objective, they universally apply; moral principles (usually more or less based on the natural human moral sense) are subjective, they don't universally apply.

The idea/ideal of objectivity probably comes from the scientific process, it thoroughly shaped Western thinking for a long time.

So non-Western thinkers like VA may only percieve varying degrees and forms of subjectivity, and may see the ideal of objectivity as effing insane, but they are simply misunderstanding it.
Likewise, Western thinkers may see it as effing insane (at least I do) that we don't devide things into subjective and objective. Using this division is a lot more advantageous overall.
As often you are jumping to conclusion based on ignorance.

Note this from the roots of 'Western Philosophy'

Protagoras (c. 490 BC – c. 420 BC) was a pre-Socratic Greek philosopher.
Protagoras is credited with the philosophy of relativism, which he discussed in his lost work, Truth (also known as Refutations).[11][17] Although knowledge of Protagoras' position is limited, his relativism is inferred from one of his most famous statements:
"Man is the measure of all things: of the things that are, that they are, of the things that are not, that they are not.

Heraclitus of Ephesus (c. 535 – c. 475 BC, fl. 504/3 BC – 501/0 BC) was an Ancient Greek, pre-Socratic Ionian philosopher.
He was most famous for his insistence on ever-present change, or flux or becoming, as the characteristic feature of the world, as stated in the famous saying, "No man ever steps in the same river twice" as well as "panta rhei", everything flows.

There were other ancient Western Philosophers who are claimed reality is subjective, i.e. intersubjective and not absolutely objective.

Then we have Kant - no thing in itself.

Then Nietzsche and Perspectivism,
Perspectivism rejects objective metaphysics, claiming that no evaluation of objectivity can transcend cultural formations or subjective designations.[6] Therefore, there are no objective facts, nor any knowledge of a thing-in-itself. - wiki

There are many hardcore 'objectivists' like the earlier-Wittgenstein who turned to intersubjectivity in the later part of his life.

Personally I believe in objectivity but only relative-objectivity thus objectivity in this case is merely inter-subjectivity, i.e. ultimately subjective.

The dichotomy of objectivity and intersubjectivity is present within humanity everywhere, Western, Eastern, Middle-Eastern, Middle-Western and everywhere.
What overrides is inter-subjectivity with regards to reality.

Those who are hardcore objectivists [not the Randian types] are because of a deep evolutionary and psychological issue.

Re: All Moral State-of-affairs are Facts

Posted: Sun Sep 13, 2020 6:30 am
by Harbal
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sun Sep 13, 2020 5:45 am
Harbal wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 11:00 am I still don't understand why you call them moral facts. Wouldn't "facts relating to morality" or "facts about morality" be more accurate, and less misleading.
The term "moral facts" is used in the same sense of 'scientific facts' 'legal facts' 'historical facts' "economic fact" and "whatever facts".
Thus the above are specific facts are related/confined to their specific framework and system of knowledge.
So what is wrong with using the term 'moral facts' which are specific to the moral framework and system.

What the moral-facts-deniers claim is there are no facts and moral statements cannot be facts as far as morality [& ethics] is concern.
They claim whatever is of morality only expresses opinions, beliefs, are emotional, of feelings, and of the others as in the list above.
It's almost as if you want to be misunderstood in order to get people to challenge you, and you in return get to shout "moral fact deniers" at them. It all seems rather pointless. :(
Those who deny there are moral facts know what moral-facts-denier mean.
It was not me who started this contention, but note these threads raised by Peter Holmes;
Well it seems to me, that you and your moral-fact-deniers are deliberately misunderstanding each other. It all seems rather petty.

Re: All Moral State-of-affairs are Facts

Posted: Sun Sep 13, 2020 6:47 am
by Atla
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sun Sep 13, 2020 6:00 am
Atla wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 11:20 am Might have something to do with the concept of objectivity being a rather Western one. Facts are objective, they universally apply; moral principles (usually more or less based on the natural human moral sense) are subjective, they don't universally apply.

The idea/ideal of objectivity probably comes from the scientific process, it thoroughly shaped Western thinking for a long time.

So non-Western thinkers like VA may only percieve varying degrees and forms of subjectivity, and may see the ideal of objectivity as effing insane, but they are simply misunderstanding it.
Likewise, Western thinkers may see it as effing insane (at least I do) that we don't devide things into subjective and objective. Using this division is a lot more advantageous overall.
As often you are jumping to conclusion based on ignorance.

Note this from the roots of 'Western Philosophy'

Protagoras (c. 490 BC – c. 420 BC) was a pre-Socratic Greek philosopher.
Protagoras is credited with the philosophy of relativism, which he discussed in his lost work, Truth (also known as Refutations).[11][17] Although knowledge of Protagoras' position is limited, his relativism is inferred from one of his most famous statements:
"Man is the measure of all things: of the things that are, that they are, of the things that are not, that they are not.

Heraclitus of Ephesus (c. 535 – c. 475 BC, fl. 504/3 BC – 501/0 BC) was an Ancient Greek, pre-Socratic Ionian philosopher.
He was most famous for his insistence on ever-present change, or flux or becoming, as the characteristic feature of the world, as stated in the famous saying, "No man ever steps in the same river twice" as well as "panta rhei", everything flows.

There were other ancient Western Philosophers who are claimed reality is subjective, i.e. intersubjective and not absolutely objective.

Then we have Kant - no thing in itself.

Then Nietzsche and Perspectivism,
Perspectivism rejects objective metaphysics, claiming that no evaluation of objectivity can transcend cultural formations or subjective designations.[6] Therefore, there are no objective facts, nor any knowledge of a thing-in-itself. - wiki

There are many hardcore 'objectivists' like the earlier-Wittgenstein who turned to intersubjectivity in the later part of his life.

Personally I believe in objectivity but only relative-objectivity thus objectivity in this case is merely inter-subjectivity, i.e. ultimately subjective.

The dichotomy of objectivity and intersubjectivity is present within humanity everywhere, Western, Eastern, Middle-Eastern, Middle-Western and everywhere.
What overrides is inter-subjectivity with regards to reality.

Those who are hardcore objectivists [not the Randian types] are because of a deep evolutionary and psychological issue.
As often, you simply confirmed what I wrote: you simply (want to) misunderstand.
Everyone with half a brain knows that objectivity is an ideal and still intersubjectively constructed. True, genuine, absolute objectivity is impossible for humans.

In Western thinking we have a dichotomy of objective IDEAL vs subjectivities. Not the absolute objectivity vs subjectivities that you claimed, that's reserved for lunatics.

I already explained this to you 2-3 times by the way. Maybe 10 more times, and it'll do the trick.

Re: All Moral State-of-affairs are Facts

Posted: Sun Sep 13, 2020 8:39 am
by Belinda
Harbal wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 12:10 pm
Skepdick wrote: Sat Sep 12, 2020 11:58 am
Some measurement apparatus might measure the wavelength as X
Another measurement apparatus might measure the wavelength as Y.

Exactly like some people measure "Is murder wrong?" with Yes.
And other people measure "Is murder wrong?" with No.

How do you calibrate your measurement instruments to give the same answer?
What on earth are you talking about?
I guess Skepdick means what is your criterion by which you you judge a question of right and wrong, and how might you ensure that criterion is the same as everyone else's criterion.
I presume there has been an international agreement as to Greenwich mean time, and all clocks are calibrated to fit Greenwich mean time. So your moral criterion needs to be calibrated to fit everyone elses' criterion.
If this is indeed what Skepdick means then his question is a political one like that of implementing Greenwich mean time. It's about how do you get people to agree to observe the law.

PS i wonder if all piano tuners calibrate their tuning forks.