I don't disagree. But how do you know it's "wrong"? That's very important, because without that a) we don't really know it's wrong, we just say it or imagine it, without reasons, and b) we can't justify preventing it in the justice system, or even condemning it by anything stronger than saying "I don't like it."Iwannaplato wrote: ↑Thu Mar 26, 2026 9:07 amI was speaking about me, not humanists, though I think you are wrong about humanists also. I am not a moral nihilist. Moral nihilists claim that there are no objective morals. I do not claim that. In fact I think there are. I don't think however one can demonstrate them.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Thu Mar 26, 2026 5:56 am No, because mere skepticism would imply they don't know, and they should know...if they can think logically about their own beliefs. There's not one single moral precept they can come up with from Humanist presuppostions. Anybody who doesn't know that hasn't tried.I didn't dismiss all objective morality.Oh, well, pedophilia is wrong, there's one.Okay, what morals are objective, in your view?
So it comes back to this basic question: if there's no "demonstrating" (your word, of course) that pedos are objectively wrong, how is it we can claim pedos are objectively wrong?
Doesn't that just leave us with this, then: that you and I have a FEELING that pedos are wrong, but there's no way of us knowing whether that's just a quirk of us, or whether we're intuiting something real? And if all we have is a feeling, how do we know it's not like so many feelings we have, that turn out to be totally misleading?Because they are necessarily based on a non-rational direct intuition.If there are such things as objective morals, as you claim, then what is your basis for assuming nobody can prove any?
For example, people often speak of "having the feeling someone's watching you," even when nobody is. Or people have a feeling of foreboding when they walk through an empty woods at night, even though nothing is threatening them. Or people imagine somebody is interested in them when that person is not. All such things happen quite regularly: so how do we know this moral "intuition" of ours isn't just like that -- a feeling that has no reality behind it? And on what basis do we crown some of our feelings with the title "objective," when so many are purely subjective and unreal?
I think we can -- at least to the satisfaction of a rational, fair-minded person. I suggest that the whole Creation trumpets it to the fair mind, and even our own constitution indicates the action of God. However, I'm not sure it's possible to prove anything to somebody who is already preset not to accept anything, but why worry about them? They're making themselves hopeless, and it's not your fault or mine if they're obstinate.Again, you can't demonstrate this.Or it's the truth. If God exists, and if God has spoken, then that's as much demonstration as a rational person is ever going to need. The question, then, is only "Does God exist?" And for that, we have good evidence.
I have just responded to him now, for the first time. He hasn't hitherto been in my window of attention. I've had no conversations about slavery with him before, and I don't know what his real take on that is.And again, what you did not respond to. Since you said you have an obligation to challenge immoral positions, did you challenge Wizard on his pro-slavery sentiments?
If he's pro-slavery, then of course I disagree. But when did I say we have "an obligation to challenge immoral positions"? I don't think that's even possible: if we challenged everybody we disagreed with, then there wouldn't be enough hours in a day, or a lifetime. And, as Kant said, "ought implies can." We can't do it, so we can't be morally obligated to challenge every immoral position. We have to pick and choose our battles.